Answer: B) 5 days
Explanation: 2 weeks is equal to 14 days. If you do 14 - 9 you get 5, which is equal to the amount of days after the due date.
P=1560000
APR=5.6%
monthly interest, i=5.6%/12=7/1500 [fractions keep exact values]
R=1+i=1+7/1500
# of periods, n=30 years = 360 periods
monthly payment, A
A=PR^n(i)/(R^n-1)
=1560000*(1+7/1500)^360*(7/1500)/((1+7/1500)^360-1)
=$8955.632
At the end of eight years,
number of periods, n1 = 8*12 = 96
If paid off at the end of 8 years, value of loan then
future value of principal
F1=PR^n1=1560000*(1+7/1500)^96=2439135.635
future value of payments
F2=A(R^n1-1)/i=8955.632*(1+7/1500)^96-1)/(7/1500)=1081485.620
Therefore the balloon payment
= future value of principal (owing) - future value of payments (paid)
=F1-F2
=2439135.635-1081485.620
=1357650.0152
Round to two places after decimal to get final answer.
Answer:
3
Step-by-step explanation:
-5y + 4 = -11 Get rid of the numbers to get y alone.
-5y +4 minus 4 = -11 minus 4 Here you are removing the 4 from the left
-5y = -15 Now you will have to get rid of the -5
-5y/(-5) = -15/(-5)
y = 3
Answer:
4:36
24 x 4:36
96:36
8:4
1day = 24 hours
Step-by-step explanation:
