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beks73 [17]
2 years ago
7

The London Eye Ferris wheel has a diameter of 120 meters. It completes one revolution in 30 minutes. About how far will a person

travel along the arc of the Ferris wheel in 10 minutes while riding the London Eye?
Mathematics
1 answer:
GenaCL600 [577]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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The cost for hiring a car for 2 days in 2018 was Rs. 264 which was 20% more than in 2013. What was the cost of hiring a car for
Goshia [24]

The cost of hiring a car for 2 days in 2013 is Rs. 316.8

<h3>How to find the cost of hiring in 2013 ?</h3>

The cost for hiring a car for 2 days in 2018 was Rs. 264 which was 20% more than in 2013.

Therefore,

cost of hiring for 2018 = Rs. 264

Therefore,

let

cost of hiring in 2013 = 20%(264) + 264

cost of hiring in 2013 = 20 / 100 × 264 + 264

cost of hiring in 2013 = 1 / 5 × 264 + 264

cost of hiring in 2013 = 264 / 5 + 264

cost of hiring in 2013 = 52.8 + 264

cost of hiring in 2013 = 316.8

Therefore, the cost of hiring a car for 2 days in 2013 is Rs. 316.8.

learn more on cost here: brainly.com/question/1663590

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7 0
2 years ago
Find the percent of the number: 64% 75
Dima020 [189]

64% of 75 = 64/100 x 75 = 48 <==== answer

4 0
3 years ago
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The quotient of a number x and -1.5 = 21
Lapatulllka [165]

Should be... x ÷ -1.5 = 21

4 0
3 years ago
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What is the sum of the first 70 consecutive odd numbers? Explain.
expeople1 [14]

The sum of the first n odd numbers is n squared! So, the short answer is that the sum of the first 70 odd numbers is 70 squared, i.e. 4900.

Allow me to prove the result: odd numbers come in the form 2n-1, because 2n is always even, and the number immediately before an even number is always odd.

So, if we sum the first N odd numbers, we have

\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^N 2i-1 = 2\sum_{i=1}^N i - \sum_{i=1}^N 1

The first sum is the sum of all integers from 1 to N, which is N(N+1)/2. We want twice this sum, so we have

\displaystyle 2\sum_{i=1}^N i = 2\cdot\dfrac{N(N+1)}{2}=N(N+1)

The second sum is simply the sum of N ones:

\underbrace{1+1+1\ldots+1}_{N\text{ times}}=N

So, the final result is

\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^N 2i-1 = 2\sum_{i=1}^N i - \sum_{i=1}^N 1 = N(N+1)-N = N^2+N-N = N^2

which ends the proof.

5 0
2 years ago
48% de 8,4===============​
Fofino [41]

Answer: 4,032

Step-by-step explanation:

8,4 x 0,48 = 4,032

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2 years ago
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