Answer:
35%
Step-by-step explanation:
Mechanical Advantage = Force by Hammer / Force by Nail = 160/40 = 4
Answer:
9000
Step-by-step explanation:
the equation to figure this out would be 180(n-2). N would equal the number of sides so you would plug it in 180(52-2). Then you end up with 180*50 which equals 9000
Answer:
I don't know sorry :)
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8m/s^2
so, we get
![a(t)=9.8](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20a%28t%29%3D9.8%20)
and acceleration will always be constant
we know that
integral of acceleration is velocity
so, we can integrate both sides
![\int \:a\left(t\right)dt=\int \:9.8dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cint%20%5C%3Aa%5Cleft%28t%5Cright%29dt%3D%5Cint%20%5C%3A9.8dt%20)
![v(t)=9.8t+C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20v%28t%29%3D9.8t%2BC%20)
we are given
v(0)=35m/s
we can use it and find C
![v(0)=9.8*0+C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20v%280%29%3D9.8%2A0%2BC%20)
![35=9.8*0+C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%2035%3D9.8%2A0%2BC%20)
![C=35](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%3D35%20)
now, we can plug it back
![v(t)=9.8t+35](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20v%28t%29%3D9.8t%2B35%20)
we know that
integral of velocity is height
we can integrate it again
![\int \:v\left(t\right)dt=\int \:\left(9.8t+35\right)dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cint%20%5C%3Av%5Cleft%28t%5Cright%29dt%3D%5Cint%20%5C%3A%5Cleft%289.8t%2B35%5Cright%29dt%20)
![s(t)=\int \:\left(9.8t+35\right)dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20s%28t%29%3D%5Cint%20%5C%3A%5Cleft%289.8t%2B35%5Cright%29dt%20)
![s(t)=4.9t^2+35t+C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20s%28t%29%3D4.9t%5E2%2B35t%2BC%20)
now, we have
s(0)=6
we can use it and find C
![s(0)=4.9(0)^2+35(0)+C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20s%280%29%3D4.9%280%29%5E2%2B35%280%29%2BC%20)
![6=4.9(0)^2+35(0)+C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%206%3D4.9%280%29%5E2%2B35%280%29%2BC%20)
now, we can plug back C
![C=6](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20C%3D6%20)
and we get
.............Answer