Answer:
Entry to record adjustment:
COGS Dr $9.4m
Inventory Cr $9.4m
Explanation:
The question relates to a change in accounting policy. According to IAS 8 (changes in accounting policy and estimate), a change in accounting policy is to be reflected retrospectively and prospectively, which means any changes should be implemented by bringing changes in the past records. Since CPS company has been using FIFO method, the inventory has been overstated in the financial statements. A shift to AVCO has resulted in a decrease in inventory value.
The value of inventory has to be reduced as a result of change in accounting policy (i.e $38m - $28.6m). This is the closing inventory so a reduction in the value of closing inventory results in an increase in cost of goods sold (COGS), therefore, the adjusting entry will be aimed at reducing inventory and increasing cost of goods sold, see as follows:
Entry:
COGS Dr $9.4m
Inventory Cr $9.4m
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Value of Yahoo:
= Shares × Price
= 110 shares × $20
= $2,200
Value of General Motors(GM):
= Shares × Price
= 210 shares × $20
= $4,200
Value of Standard and Poorʹs Index Fund (SPY):
= Shares × Price
= 70 shares × $130
= $9,100
Total value = Value of Yahoo + Value of GM + Value of SPY
= $2,200 + $4,200 + $9,100
= $15,500
Therefore,
Portfolio weight of YHOO:
= Value of YAHOO ÷ Total value
= $2,200 ÷ $15,500
= 0.1419 or 14.19%
Portfolio weight of GM:
= Value of GM ÷ Total value
= $4,200 ÷ $15,500
= 0.2709 or 27.09%
Therefore, the portfolio weight of YHOO and GM are 14.2% (approx) and 27.1% (approx), respectively.
Answer: $1,031 million
Explanation:
Given that,
Retained earnings(2010) = $14,329 million
Retained earnings(2009) = $13,157 million
Net income(2010) = $2,203 million
Amount of dividends = Retained earnings(2009) + Net income(2010) - Retained earnings(2010)
= $13,157 million + $2,203 million - $14,329 million
= $1,031 million
Therefore, amount of dividends did Colgate-Palmolive pay to its shareholders in 2010 is $1,031 million.
Answer:
3 1/3 years
Explanation:
Payback period is the time required for the inflows from a project to be equal to the initial outflow for the project. It is a key consideration in capital budgeting. It is usually assumed that the outlay or initial outflow is made in year 0 and the first inflow comes in after a year.
Year Cash outflow Cash inflow Balance
0 ($50,000) - ($50,000)
1 - $15,000 ($35,000)
2 - $15,000 ($20,000)
3 - $15,000 ($5,000)
4 - $15,000 $10,000
5 - $15,000 $25,000
Hence the payback period
= 3 years and 5000/15000 * 12 months
= 3 years 4 months
= 3 1/3 years
Answer:
question
1. how much amortization expense on the goodwill can Ingrid deduct in year 1, year 2, year 3?
2. In lieu of the original facts, assume that Ingrid purchase only a phone list with a useful life of 5 years for $16,500.
How much amortization expense on the phone list can Ingrid deduct in year 1, year 2 and year 3?
Explanation:
The explanation is shown in the file attached. Thank you i hope it helps
