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Hoochie [10]
3 years ago
6

find the missing angle measure in each triangle. Then classify the triangle as acute, right, or obtuse. PLEASE ANSWER QUICK ILL

MARK BRAINLIEST

Mathematics
2 answers:
Taya2010 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: The missing angle is 32 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation: All the degrees in a triangle sum up to 180 degrees. Add the two known angles and subtract the sum from 180

Hope this helps! :)

rodikova [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

17

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Which is the graph of f(x) = x2 – 2x + 3?
BaLLatris [955]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We cannot factor this function out which tells us that there are no zeros. The graph backs this up because we can see that there are none. The easiest way to graph this would start by plugging in points and making a table for yourself.

Lets start by plugging in -1.

(-1)^2-2(-1)+3 =6, this means we have a point at (-1,6).

Now lets plug in 0.

(0)^2-2(0)+3= 3 (0,3)

For plugging in 1

(1)^2-2(1)+3=2 (1,2) (this happens to be the vertex)

And lastly lets plug in 2

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Depending on how many points are needed, keep plugging in numbers like we did above.

7 0
3 years ago
Sandra has 46 fewer coins than Martha. Sandra has 57 coins . how many coins does Martha have?
hoa [83]
M = 57+46
(Since she has 46 less then martha, you know to find how many martha has you have to add 46!)

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6 0
3 years ago
Simplify root 32-6 divided by root 2 plus root 2​
Alex777 [14]

Answer:

5•362165924

Step-by-step explanation:

first make root of 32-6=5•099019514

then make root of 2+root2=1•84--

then divide upper by lower part answer comes

or

root32-6=root26

root 2+root 2=2root2

root26/root2root2

ans=3•0318---

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A formal power series over R is a formal infinite sum f = X[infinity] n=0 anxn, where the coefficients an ∈ R. We add power seri
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

where the letter D is the diagonal matrix with diagonal entries λ1,…,λn. Now let's assume V is invertible, that is,  this particular given eigenvectors are linearly independent, you get M=VDV−1.

Kindly check the attached image below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.

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3 years ago
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Andru [333]
The answer is
c. \: y = 14.25h + 375
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3 years ago
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