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hjlf
3 years ago
14

In the context of product relationships, a _____ is a group of closely related products that are treated as a unit because of a

similar marketing strategy.
Business
1 answer:
ololo11 [35]3 years ago
8 0
In the context product relationship, a product line is a group of closely related products that are treated as a unit because of a similar marketing strategy.
PR is to determine the optimum quantity of the variable input that will used in combination with fixed input in order to produce optimal level of output.
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sean, 17, a snowboarder, signs a long-term endorsement agreement for sportswear. he endorses the products and deposits his compe
Degger [83]

A settlement made with the aid of using a minor is frequently voidable, however a minor can most effective keep away from a settlement all through his or her minority popularity and for an inexpensive time after he reaches the age of majority.  After an inexpensive length of time, the settlement is deemed to be ratified and cannot be avoided.

  • Facts of the case: Sean, 17, a snowboarder, signs a long-term endorsement agreement for sportswear. At age 19, he wants to void the agreement by claiming that he lacked capacity when he signed the deal at 17.
  • Rule of Law: Minor's Contracts are voidable at the option of Minor.
  • Analysis: Since, Minor's Contract is voidable at the option of the Minor who Signs the Contact can either honor the contract or void the contract. A minor can void a contract for lack of capacity, only when he is still under the age of majority. If a minor turn 18 i.e., After attaining Majority and hasn't done anything to void the contract, then the contract can no longer be voided.
  • Here, Sean has not done anything to void the contract on attaining the age of 18. So, he at the age of 19, cannot void the agreement by claiming that he lacked capacity when he signed the agreement at 17.
  • Decision: Sean Vs. Sportswear Company: In the light of the above provisions, a Court will not permit Sean to now void the agreement.

Learn more about minority popularity here:

brainly.com/question/14457086

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8 0
1 year ago
According to the liquidity premium theory of the term structure of interest rates, if the one-year bond rate is expected to be 4
KatRina [158]

Answer:

Interest rate on the a three year bond =5.5%

Explanation:

one-year bond rate expected = 4%, 5%, 6% for the next three years

liquidity premium on a three year bond = 0.5%

number of years = 3

The interest rate on the a three year bond can be calculated as

= liquidity premium + ( summation of bond rates for the next three years/number of years )

= 0.5 + ( (4+5+6)/3)

= 0.5 + ( 15/3)

= 0.5 + 5  = 5.5%

4 0
3 years ago
A buyer agrees to purchase real property by making monthly payments to the seller and then receiving a deed at a later point in
slamgirl [31]

A buyer agrees to purchase real property by making monthly payments to the seller and then receiving a deed at a later point in time. such an agreement is known as a/an purchase-money mortgage.

What is purchase-money mortgage?

A purchase-money mortgage is a mortgage that the seller of home issues to the borrower as part of the sale of the property. This is typically done in circumstances where the buyer is unable to qualify for a mortgage through conventional banking channels. It is also known as seller financing or owner financing. In circumstances when the buyer is taking over, the seller's mortgage, and seller financing makes up the difference between the mortgage's outstanding balance and the property's sales price, a purchase-money mortgage may be employed.

What is one of the disadvantages of the purchase money mortgage?

One drawback is that you are still, and will continue to be, the home's legal owner. In the event that those buyers turn out to be dishonest, you can be left with damaged properties. Another drawback is that it could be challenging to evict or foreclose on a buyer who defaults on a loan.

Learn more about purchase-money mortgage: brainly.com/question/20711780

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7 0
1 year ago
HELP!
Elza [17]

Answer:

i think the answer is true

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Babcock Company purchased a piece of machinery for $36,000 on January 1, 2019, and has been depreciating the machine using the s
pogonyaev

Answer:

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

Explanation:

Year  Remaining Life of machine  Depreciation fraction

1                               5                                           5/15

2                              4                                           4/15

3                              3                                           3/15

4                              2                                           2/15

5                          <u>    1     </u>                                       1/15

Total                       15  

Now here, the depreciation formula is as under:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) * Fraction value

<u>Year 2019:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 5/15  = $12,000

<u>Year 2020:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 4/15  = $9,600

<u>Year 2021:</u>

Now in this year the there is change in estimate and a switch in the use of the depreciation method, which is now straight line method. The change in estimate only includes the useful life of the asset which is 6 years from the date of purchase.

So for straight-line depreciation:

Depreciation Expense = (Cost - Salvage Value)  / Useful Life

By simply putting values, we have:

Depreciation Expense = $36,000 / 6 years = $6,000 per year

So this means, according to change in accounting policy, the excess depreciation charged must be eliminated from the previous years. The depreciation charge for the previous 2 years must be $12,000 and the excess depreciation charge is calculated as under:

Carrying value of the asset = $21,600 - $12,000  = $9,600

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

The double entry according to the US GAAP, for the excess depreciation charge in the previous years would be the waiving off of retained earnings with the excess depreciation amount calculated above.

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u></u>

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

The depreciation expense for the year 2021, would be recorded as under:

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

3 0
3 years ago
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