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Zarrin [17]
3 years ago
14

A leftward shift in the supply curve for a good may be caused by any of the following except A. consumer expectation of an incre

ase in their future income. B. an increase in the wage paid to labor. C. a decrease in the number of firms in the industry. D.
Business
2 answers:
Contact [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. consumer expectation of an increase in their future income.

Explanation:

Supply is the quantity of a good that can be supplied by a producer to meet demand at a given time.

A left shift in supply means that there is a reduction in amount supplied at all prices.

This is caused by an increase in cost of materials used for producing goods.

A left shift can be caused by an increase in wages paid to workers. This means cost of production has increased so price per unit will increase and less will be supplied.

A decrease in number of firms will reduce the ability of suppliers to meet demand. Supply will reduce.

Anticipation of an increase in consumer income however will not lead to shift in supply to the left. Since this does not affect cost of supply

nydimaria [60]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: A. consumer expectation of an increase in their future income.

Explanation:

The supply curve is simply a graph that shows the relationship that is between the price of a particular good and the amount of quantity that is supplied.

A leftward shift in the supply curve for a good simply means that less of that good is supplied. All tye options will cause less of the goods to be supplied except consumer expectation of an increase in their future income.

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A structure was built five years ago. Because of exceptional upkeep, the appraiser estimates the structure's condition today to
frosja888 [35]

Based on the useful life and the appraised age of the house, the effective age is <u>3 years.</u>

<h3>What is the effective age?</h3>
  • It is the age of a structure based on its physical condition and upkeep.
  • It is found by subtracting the remaining economic life from the economic life of the structure.

As a result of the physical condition and upkeep of the property, the appraiser estimates it to be equivalent to a 3 year old home. This is therefore the effective age.

Find out more on appraisals at brainly.com/question/15032807.

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2 years ago
Jane, the CEO of Noble Inc. regularly interacts with her employees to give them all the necessary details about the company goal
Olin [163]

In the scenario, Jane is performing the managerial role of a <u>Disseminator.</u>

<u>Explanation:</u>

3 0
3 years ago
Pls be nice and answer this for me. in the middle of a test. 50 pts!
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

nate should have chosen to ask the supplier for verification for the requisition order

3 0
2 years ago
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Tammy's take-home pay is $800 a month. 7% of her take-home pay is spent on her cell phone bill. how much is tammy's monthly cell
ioda
Pretty sure its $56. Hope that helps
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3 years ago
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"The company will pay a dividend of $15 per share 10 years from today and will increase the dividend by 5 percent per year there
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Current Share price= $114.21

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique adopted to detremine the value of an asset. According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows that would arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return (discount rate)

The model is premised on the concept of the time value of money. The idea that $1 today is not the same as $1 tomorrow. The $1 of today is worth more than that of tomorrow; because of the opportunity to earn interest. So to determine the worth of a future cash flow, we compute its worth today- its present value.

The Present Value of a future cash flow is the amount that needs to be invested today at a particular rate of return to equal the same cash flow in the future. Present value means the value in year 0 or now

The process of calculating the present value of a future sum is called discounting. So to calculate the current stock price in this question, we shall discount the future dividends using the required rate of return and then add them together.

So if an asset (e.g a stock) promises some cash flows in the future, those cash flows need to be brought to their present values and then be added to arrive at the value of the asset

In this question, the cash flows are the dividends as given and the rate of return (discount rate) is 15%

So we apply this model as follows:

Step 1 : PV of div from year 1 to 10  =  15× ((1-1.15)^(-10))/0.15)  =  75.282

Step 2:PV (in year 10)of div from year 11 onward=(15×1.05)/(0.15-0.05)=  157.5

Step 3:PV(in year 0) of div from year 11 onward =  157.5 × (1.15)^ (-10) =  38.93

Current Share price= $75.282 + $38.93 = $114.21

<em>Note:</em><em> step 3 is important because the the cash flows from year 11 onward were discounted to arrive at their values in year 10. Since we are interested in the current price i.e year 0 value, it is important that we re-discount again to bring them to their PV in year 0.</em>

8 0
3 years ago
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