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Zarrin [17]
4 years ago
14

A leftward shift in the supply curve for a good may be caused by any of the following except A. consumer expectation of an incre

ase in their future income. B. an increase in the wage paid to labor. C. a decrease in the number of firms in the industry. D.
Business
2 answers:
Contact [7]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. consumer expectation of an increase in their future income.

Explanation:

Supply is the quantity of a good that can be supplied by a producer to meet demand at a given time.

A left shift in supply means that there is a reduction in amount supplied at all prices.

This is caused by an increase in cost of materials used for producing goods.

A left shift can be caused by an increase in wages paid to workers. This means cost of production has increased so price per unit will increase and less will be supplied.

A decrease in number of firms will reduce the ability of suppliers to meet demand. Supply will reduce.

Anticipation of an increase in consumer income however will not lead to shift in supply to the left. Since this does not affect cost of supply

nydimaria [60]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: A. consumer expectation of an increase in their future income.

Explanation:

The supply curve is simply a graph that shows the relationship that is between the price of a particular good and the amount of quantity that is supplied.

A leftward shift in the supply curve for a good simply means that less of that good is supplied. All tye options will cause less of the goods to be supplied except consumer expectation of an increase in their future income.

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Assume a company expects to sell 2 million packages of​ Pop-Tarts Gone​ Nutty! in the first year after introduction but expects
elena55 [62]

Answer: launching the new product will be profitable.

Explanation:

Profitability of the new product calculation

Sales of the new product (pop tarts gone nutty) = 2000 000

Selling Price = $1.10

Variable costs = $ 0.35

Fixed costs        = $ 700 000

First thing to do we need to compare number of expected units to sold (sales) against the number of units required to be sold to break even. This step is done to when check whether expected sales will be enough to at least reach the point where the business makes no profit or loss from the new product sales.

Break-even point = fixed costs / (selling price – variable costs)

                               = 700 000/ (1.30 – 0.60)

Break-even point = 1000 000 units

Expected sales are 2000 000 and break-even point sales unit are 1000 000. Expected sales are more than the sales required to break even.

We are now calculating if it is profitable for the firm to launch the new product Pop-Tart Gone nutty. We calculate profits for the firm if they launch the product and compare with profits without the products. With the launch of the new product 70% of buyers are buyers who normally purchase the existing Pop-tart flavors, therefore 1400 000 buyers (2000 000×70%) are cannibalized.  

Sales unit for existing Pop Tart flavors = 300 000 000

 Sales units of existing products after the launch of the new products =                                                                                 300 000 -1400 000 = 298600 000

Profits margins from existing products (if new product is launched) = 298600000× (1.10-0.35)  = 223950 000

Existing product profit margin = 2000000× (1.30-0.60) = 1400 000  

Total profit with new product = 223950000 + 1400 000 = 225350 000

Profits without new product = 300 000 000 × (1.10-0.35) = 225000 000.

Profits when the new product is launched are higher.                                          The launching the new product will be profitable.

Unit contributions and loss

New product unit contribution = 1.30 – 0.60 = 0.70

Existing products unit contribution = 1.10 – 0.35 = 0.75

Loss from existing products = 0.75 × 1400000 = 1050000.

The existing pop tart flavors will suffer a loss of $1050000 when some of the buyers go for the new product

5 0
4 years ago
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AURORKA [14]
Yes mhm absolutely agree yup si oui yep yeah totally
5 0
3 years ago
Crane Company received proceeds of $799000 on 10-year, 9% bonds issued on January 1, 2019. The bonds had a face value of $848000
sergejj [24]

Answer:

The amount of interest expense Crane will show with relation to these bonds for the year ended December 31, 2020 is $81,220.

Explanation:

This can be calculated as follows:

Annual amortization = (Face value of the bonds - Proceeds from the bonds) / Tenure of the bonds = ($848000 - $799000) / 10 = $49,000 / 10 = $4,900

Interest expenses for 2020 = (Face value of the bonds * Annual interest rate) + Annual amortization = ($848000 * 9%) + $4,900 = $76,320 + $4,900 = $81,220

Therefore, the amount of interest expense Crane will show with relation to these bonds for the year ended December 31, 2020 is $81,220.

3 0
3 years ago
Marcus can afford a monthly mortgage payment of $900. if he is eligible for a 30-year, 5% mortgage (where the mortgage factor is
mamaluj [8]

Answer: Marcus can afford a loan of $167,597.76.

The mortgage factor tells us the monthly principal and interest rate payable for each $1000 of a loan.

Since we know the mortgage factor and the amount Marcus can make each month, we can determine the number of $1000 in his loan amount.

We do this by \frac{900}{5.37}  = 167.5977654

This means that Marcus' loan will have 167.5977654 thousands.

Therefore we can find the amount of mortgage loan as

167.5977654 * 1000 = 167597.7654

6 0
4 years ago
XYZ Company is considering whether a project requiring purchasing of new equipment worth investing. The firm has spent $12,000 o
alex41 [277]

Answer:

The initial outlay of this project is $240.000

Explanation:

Consider the following formula and variables

new machine cost 220.000

installation 7.000

shipping 3.000

working capital  10.000

Initial investment outlay = new machine cost + installation+ shipping+ working capital

=220.000+7.000+3.000+10.000=240.000

4 0
3 years ago
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