Answer and Explanation:
(A) E(P) = (0.6) × ($2800) + (0.4) × ($2250)
= $1680+$900
= $2,580
E(S) = (0.6) × (1.40)+(0.4) × (1.5)
= 0.84 + 0.60
= $1.44
Var(S) = (0.6)(1.40 - 1.44)² + (.4)(1.50 - 1.44)²
= .00096+.00144
= 0.0024.
Cov(P,S) = (0.6)(2800-2580)(1.4-1.44) + (0.4)(2250-2580)(1.5-1.44)
= -5.28-7.92
= -13.20
b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S)
= -13.20/.0024
= -£5,500.
there is a negative exposure. as the pound gets stronger/weaker against the dollar the dollar value of british holding goes higher.
(B) b²Var(S) = (-5500)²(.0024) = 72,600($)²
(C). i would Buy 5,500 forward to hedge exchange risk exposure. By doing this, i can eliminate the volatility of the dollar value of your British asset that is due to the volatility of the exchange rate
<h2>Hey there! </h2>
<h2>I guess the correct option is:</h2>
<h3>"C. Medium term" </h3>
<h2>Mark me as a brain list </h2>
Answer:
Option "C"is the correct answer to the following statement.
Explanation:
The retrospective method effect requires the development of new accounting procedures. In other terms, the retrospective method would affect the reporting of past time financial statements.
In this situation, the company will use the equity method at the place of the Fair-value method for calculating and control over their investment, so the above option is correct.
