Answer:
Since it is a simultaneous equation,
Using elimination method, Multiply equation 1 by the co efficient of x in equation 2 and multiply equation 2 by the co efficient of x in equation 1.
Step-by-step explanation:
For further explanation , Please contact me through the comment section.
:)
Answer:
The solution is ![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question
The function given is 
The indefinite integral is mathematically represented as

Now let 
=> 
=> 
So

![= \frac{1}{2} \frac{tan^{-1} [\frac{u}{5} ]}{5} + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%5Cfrac%7Btan%5E%7B-1%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bu%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%7D%7B5%7D%20%20%2B%20%20C)
Now substituting for u
![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Answer: Hello Luv......
380 (There is no picture i'm sorry,)
Step-by-step explanation:
A = L + B = a2 + a√(a2 + 4h2))
Hope this helps. Mark me brainest please.
Anna ♥
Step-by-step explanation:
the answer is in the image above
Answer:
<em>D. 30</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
6 ÷ 1/5 <em>-given expression</em>
6 x 5 <em>-use the </em><em>keep, change, flip </em><em>method, where you</em><em> keep</em><em> the </em><u><em>first </em></u><em>number, </em><em>change</em><em> the </em><u><em>division sign</em></u><em> to a </em><u><em>multiplication sign</em></u><em>, and </em><em>flip</em><em> the f</em><u><em>raction</em></u><em> that comes after the symbol.</em>
<em>6 x 5 = 30</em>
<em>30 is the answer</em>