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Savatey [412]
3 years ago
9

An aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that $8400 are estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doubtful Ac

counts has a $3800 credit balance, the adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a:_____.
1. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $1,800.
2. debit to Bad Debt Expense for $2,200.
3. credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for $3,000.
4. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $2,000.
Business
1 answer:
Trava [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Debit to Bad Debts Expense for $4,600

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the company's accounts receivable shows the amount of $8400 which was estimated to be uncollectible which means that If Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has the amount of $3800 as credit balance, the adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a Debit to Bad Debts Expense for $4,600 calculated as

Bad Debts Expense=Accounts receivable-Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

Bad Debts Expense=$8,400-$3,800

Bad Debts Expense=$4,600

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kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

Explanation:

Someone you have worked with previously (a coworker). They would be able to speak for how well you work with other people, how you contribute to the environment etc.

Boss from previous job. They can testify to the quality, quantity, regularity and consistency of work + how responsible and dependant you are.

Someone you do volunteer work with or anything extra-curricular related to job. Shows passion and character outside of a professional environment.

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3 0
3 years ago
What is the purpose of the sherman antitrust act
tamaranim1 [39]
To destory monopolies that were using their power to harm society.
7 0
3 years ago
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Final Finishing is considering three mutually exclusive alternatives for a new polisher. Each alternative has an expected life o
valkas [14]

Answer:

1. 18.09%

2. 12%

3. 20.02%  

Explanation:

As the MARR is 15%, we will accept projects which have IRR more than 15%. As the projects are mutually exclusive, we will choose only one project.

An IRR (Internal Rate of Return) is the rate which makes the NPV (Net Present Value) = ZERO.

The formula to calculate IRR is: 0 = P0 + P1/(1+IRR) + P2/(1+IRR)2 + P3/(1+IRR)3 + . . . +Pn/(1+IRR)n where P0 = Initial cash outflow

And P1, . . . Pn equals the cash inflows in periods 1, 2, . . . n, respectively.      

1) IRR of project 1:

0 = -$20,000 + $4,465/(1+IRR)1 + $4,465/(1+IRR)2 + $4,465/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $4,465/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 18.09%

2) IRR of project 2:

0 = -$10,000 + $1,770/(1+IRR)1 + $1,770/(1+IRR)2 + $1,770/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $1,770/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 12%

3) IRR of project 3:

0 = -$15,000 + $3,580/(1+IRR)1 + $3,580/(1+IRR)2 + $3,580/(1+IRR)3 + . . . + $3,580/(1+IRR)10

Solving for IRR we have = 20.02%

We will choose project 3 as it has the highest IRR.

8 0
3 years ago
An integrity-based approach _____. a. helps very little concerning where questionable practices are occurring and where possible
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": usually have chief officers, human resource managers, and board member committees involved with the ethics and compliance program.

Explanation:

The integrity-based approach is the practice in which top executives of a company including members of the <em>Board of Directors</em> (BoD) hold the responsibility of the firm's ethical culture and spread it to their employees. This is done to promote good practices among workers and to spot where might be possible ethical issues appearing in the company.

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3 years ago
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2 years ago
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