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sdas [7]
3 years ago
14

On January 1, 2014, Evers Company purchased the following machine for use in its production process:

Business
1 answer:
iren2701 [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a) Calculate the amount of depreciation expense that Evers should record each year of its useful life under the following assumptions. Show your workings.

(1) Straight-line method

depreciable value = $180,000 - $10,000 = $170,000 / 4 = $42,500 per year (same for each year)

(2) Double declining balance method

depreciation expense year 2014 = $180,000 x 1/4 x 2 = $90,000

depreciation expense year 2015 = $90,000 x 1/4 x 2 = $45,000

depreciation expense year 2016 = $45,000 x 1/4 x 2 = $22,500

depreciation expense year 2017 = $22,500

(3) Units-of-activity method and estimates that the useful life of machine is 125,000 units. Actual usage is as follows: 2014, 45,000 units; 2015, 35,000 units; 2016, 25,000 units; 2017, 20,000 units.

depreciation expense per unit = $170,000 / 125,000 units = $1.36

depreciation expense year 2014 = $1.36 x 45,000 = $61,200

depreciation expense year 2015 = $1.36 x 35,000 = $47,600

depreciation expense year 2016 = $1.36 x 25,000 = $34,000

depreciation expense year 2017 = $1.36 x 20,000 = $27,200

b) Which method used to calculate depreciation reports the highest amount of depreciation expense in year 1?

double declining balance

The highest in year 4?

straight line method

The highest total amount over the 4-year period?

double declining balance

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Answer: Shareholder theory

Explanation: As per the shareholder theory, the manager focuses all his or her efforts on the profit maximization of the shareholders of the company. A manager following shareholder theory will not be much concerned about the other stakeholders of the organisation. The benefit to shareholders could be provided either by increase in share price or as heavy distribution of dividends.

Hence, the correct option is D.

5 0
3 years ago
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Assume the following unadjusted account balances at the end of the accounting period for Chocolate Brownie Palace: Accounts Rece
ANEK [815]

Answer:

Bad debt expenses = $4,000

 

Explanation:

                                                       Debit       Credit

Bad debt expense                          $4,000  

Allowances for doubtful accounts                $4,000

Workings

= $5,000 of receivables - $1,000 of Allowance for doubtful account

= $4,000

5 0
3 years ago
Rachel is going to the mall to purchase a wedding gift for a coworker. Based on research, which type of product is she likely to
Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

utilitarian

Explanation:

Utilitarian Motivation is the zeal, drive to acquire products that can be used to get, acquire or accomplish another thing/something.Usually, Utility items are bought/purchased frequently more out of need and are a regular part of the consumer's life, and buyers are price sensitive.

Consumer behavior is the search for value of goods or services and its is the transformation into something of value.

Utilitarian: seeks to helps the consumer solve problems and accomplish tasks.utilitarian value is a means to and end.

Utilitarian products

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8 0
3 years ago
During the​ year, credit sales amounted to​ $820,000. Cash collected on credit sales amounted to​ $780,000, and​ $15,000 has bee
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is​ 20,500 CREDIT

Explanation:

The ending balance of Allowance for bad debts would be the 2.5% of sales

The adjustment is made to get the allowance for Bad Debt match the estimate uncollectible ammounts.

Notice it state <em>"company adjusted for bad debt expense"</em>

This means<u> it debit this account as much as it needed to be</u> to make allowance match the estimate allowance.

The write-off are transaction durign the period. They are irrelevant

So the ending balance is:

<em>2.5% of credit sales of 820,000 = $20,500</em>

It is important to remember that <u>Allowance is a counter-asset account</u>. His <em>normal balance is credit</em>, so the<u> final balance is credit.</u>

3 0
3 years ago
Cazden Motors' stock is trading at $30 a share. Call options on the company's stock are also available, some with a strike price
slava [35]

Answer:

d. If Cazden's stock price rose by $5, the exercise value of the options with $25 strike price would also increase by $5.

Explanation:

A call option confers a right, not an obligation upon the call buyer to buy a security at a pre determined price, known as exercise price or strike price at a future date.

A call buyer would exercise his right only in the scenarios wherein the strike price is lesser than the current market price on maturity.

Profit of a call buyer is given by = CMP as on expiry - Exercise/Strike price - Option premium paid

wherein CMP=  Current Market Price

A call option is "in the money" when it's strike price is less than it's current market price. In the given case, it means if the CMP today represents CMP upon expiry, call buyer would exercise his right and his gain would be $5 i.e $30 - $25.

Since the $25 exercise option is "in the money", an increase in stock price by $5 will also increase the strike price by $5.

 

8 0
3 years ago
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