HELP MEEEEEEE PLEASE

we have 4 1/2 cups of chocolate chips. a batch of our madison cookies requires 3/4 cup of chocolate chips. how many batches can

My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

You can make 6 batches of cookies.

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4 + 3/4 = 1 1/2 (2)

1 1/2 + 1 1/2 = 3 (4)

3 + 1 1/2 = 4 1/2 (6)

7 0

3 years ago

PLEASE HELP!! Compare & Contrast how Completing the Square is used to Convert a quadratic function to vertex form with how i

Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given a general quadratic formula given as ax²bx+c = 0

To generate the general formula to solve the quadratic equation, we can use the completing the square method as shown;

Step 1:

Bringing c to the other side

ax²+bx = -c

Dividing through by coefficient of x² which is 'a' will give:

x²+(b/a)x = -c/a

- Completing the square at the left hand side of the equation by adding the square of half the coefficient x i.e (b/2a)² and adding it to both sides of the equation we have:

x²+(b/a)x+(b/2a)² = -c/a+(b/2a)²

(x+b/2a)² = -c/a+(b/2a)²

(x+b/2a)² = -c/a + b²/4a²

- Taking the square root of both sides

√(x+b/2a)² = ±√-c/a + b²/√4a²

x+b/2a = ±√(-4ac+b²)/√4a²

x+b/2a =±√b²-4ac/2a

- Taking b/2a to the other side

x = -b/2a±√√b²-4ac/2a

Taking the LCM:

x = {-b±√b²-4ac}/2a

This gives the vertex form with how it is used to Solve a quadratic equation.

7 0

3 years ago

Write 6 1/4% as a decimal.

Zepler [3.9K]

1.) Change the fraction to a decimal. 1÷4=.25%. then add the whole 6. 6+.25=6.25%.2.) now divide by 100. 6.25%×100=.0625. ANSWER: .0625

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The average car length is 200 inches. how many feet and inches is the average car

telo118 [61]

So there are 12 inches in a foot. What to do:
1) divide 200 by 12 which is roughly 16.6666 repeating
2) now we know that the average car length is at least 16 feet, but less than 17
3) What I do now, is I take 12 and multiply it by 16
12 x 16 = 192
4) 200-192 = 8
5) 16 feet and 8 inches is the answer

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume

mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

$P(W)=0.80$

Then the probability that the player losses is,

$P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20$

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = $P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = $1-P(L)-P(WL)$

$=1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let X = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable $X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)$

The probability distribution of binomial is:

$P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}$

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (X ≥ 1) = 1 - P (X < 1)

= 1 - P (X = 0)

$=1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0

3 years ago