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Sholpan [36]
3 years ago
9

Which polynomial function could be represented by the graph below?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Zinaida [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

third answer

Step-by-step explanation:

The end behavior of the function indicates that the leading coefficient of x is negative (as x approaches infinity, f(x) approaches negative infinity for cubic functions with negative leading coefficients). This eliminates the first 2 answers. Next, factor out the common factor from the 3rd answer and set it to 0 to see if the roots of the polynomial shown on the graph (x=-3, x=2) match that of the answer.

  • factor out -2x since each term in the 3rd answer is divisible by -2x => -2x(x^2+x-6)
  • set the factored polynomial equal to 0 => -2x(x^2+x-6)
  • divide both sides by -2x => 0 = x^2+x-6
  • factor => (x+3)(x-2) = 0
  • find zeros by setting both factors equal to 0 => x=-3, x=2

This means that the 3rd answer is correct. The last answer, while having the correct leading coefficient, will produce roots of 3 and -2 instead of -3 and 2, which is shown on the graph.

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Complete (assume $60,000 of overhead to be distributed): (Enter amount of overhead allocated as whole dollar amounts. Round your
Sedbober [7]

The completion of the ratios, resulting from the square feet occupied by Departments A and B, and the amounts of allocated overhead costs to the two departments are as follows:

                           Ratio      Amount

Department A     0.25       $15,000

Department B     0.75      $45,000

<h3>What is the ratio?</h3>

The ratio is the proportion of the whole shared by two or more numbers.

Ratios are fractional values like proportions.

Ratios, depicted in fractions, decimals, and percentages, show how much a value or variable is contained in another.

Total distributable overhead = $60,000

Ratios = 10,000:30,000

= 1:3

Sum of Ratios = 4

OR

= 0.25:0.75

Sum of Ratios = 1

<h3>Overhead Allocation:</h3>

Department   Square Feet  Ratio    Amount of Overhead Allocated

Dept. A            10,000         A = 1      B = $15,000 ($60,000 x 0.25)

Dept. B            30,000        C = 3     D = $45,000 ($60,000 x 0.75)

Thus, based on the cost driver ratios, Department A bears <u>$15,000</u>, while Department B will be allocated <u>$45,000</u> of the distributable overheads.

Learn more about ratios at brainly.com/question/12024093

#SPJ1

6 0
1 year ago
Simplify the expression.<br><br> 4+9⋅2÷3−1
Tanzania [10]

4+9⋅2÷3−1

Use PEMDAS

P= parenthesis

E= exponents

M= multiplication

D= division

A= addition

S= subtraction

9*2= 18

4+18 ÷3-1

4+6-1

10-1

Answer: 9

5 0
3 years ago
I don't understand this
igomit [66]
Looking at the picture attached, you will notice that on one side, we have a side of length 7+5=12. Next, we have a side length of 4+5+2=11. Hence, as length*width=area for a rectangle, this is the overall area of the rectangle. Next, in the picture, there are clearly two sides taken out - a 2x5 as well as a 4x5 rectangle, which are subtracted from the total area, resulting in 11*12-2*5-4*5
Feel free to ask further questions!

6 0
4 years ago
Find the area of the figure sides meet at right angles 8 cm, 3cm, 4cm, 5cm, 9cm​
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

umm is it a quadrilateral

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A survey reported that 5% of Americans are afraid of being alone in a house at night. If a random sample of 20 Americans is sele
liq [111]

Answer:

5.96% probability that exactly 3 people in the sample are afraid of being alone at night.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are afraid of being alone at night, or they are not. The probability of a person being afraid of being alone at night is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

5% of Americans are afraid of being alone in a house at night.

This means that p = 0.05

If a random sample of 20 Americans is selected, what is the probability that exactly 3 people in the sample are afraid of being alone at night.

This is P(X = 3) when n = 20. So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{20,3}.(0.05)^{3}.(0.95)^{17} = 0.0596

5.96% probability that exactly 3 people in the sample are afraid of being alone at night.

5 0
3 years ago
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