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exis [7]
3 years ago
12

A restructuring of operations that ____ the difference between a foreign currency's inflows and outflows may ____ economic expos

ure.
A. reduces; increase
B. increases; reduce
C. reduces; reduce
D. reduces; increase AND increases; reduce
Business
1 answer:
Gre4nikov [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C. reduces; reduce

Explanation:

When there are an inflow and outflow of capital with respect to the foreign as an in and out of an economy so this represents a major and important aspect of the globalization. Simultaneously these type of inflows and outflows important impact the depreciation and the appreciation of the currency of the country in terms of foreign exchange reserves that directly impacted

Therefore the correct option is c.

You might be interested in
Davis sells Weber equipment under an arrangement whereby Davis delivers the equipment on January 1, 2021 and receives payment on
poizon [28]

Answer:

C. Debit to cash

D. Credit to notes receivable

Explanation:

When a company received money for previous sales, the following entry is required -

Debit Cash XXXX

Credit Accounts/Notes receivable XXXX

In that case, as Davis sold Weber equipment with an agreement of notes because of long-term payment, they treated the sale as a note receivable. Whenever the subsequent payment occurred, the entry to record the journal -

Debit to cash and Credit to notes receivable. Therefore, options C and D are both correct.

8 0
3 years ago
After Xavier and Alyssa deposited nearly $55,000 in a savings account at Bigbux Bank, the bank failed and filed for bankruptcy.
ASHA 777 [7]

Answer: should be protected because their account is fully insured by the FDIC.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Xavier and Alyssa kept about $55,000 in a savings account at Bigbux Bank, the bank failed and filed for bankruptcy but that the bank FDIC member bank.

Based on the above scenario, they'll be protected because their account is fully insured by the FDIC. It should be noted that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation helps in insuring several bank deposits and in case of bank failure, the depositors will be paid or the accounts of the bank will have to be transferred to some other bank.

4 0
3 years ago
Mandi gets a call from her local car dealer. At the end of the call, the seller asks when Mandi wants to schedule an appointment
Gnesinka [82]

The scenario between Mandi and the car dealer is simply known as a assumptive close.

<h3>What is a assumptive close?</h3>

An assumptive close simply means when one assumes that a customer plans to buy a product and then encourages the person to do so.

In this case, the car dealer simply encouraged Mandi to purchase the car. This illustrates an assumptive close.

Learn more about dealer on:

brainly.com/question/1918419

4 0
2 years ago
The merger between two general merchandise stores Sears and K-Mart who each carried some specialty items will most likely produc
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

B. Both economies of scope and economies of scale.

Explanation:

In microeconomics, economies of scale are the cost favorable circumstances that undertakings acquire because of their scale of activity, with cost per unit of yield diminishing with expanding scale.  

Economies of scope are "efficiencies framed by assortment, not volume". In economics, "economies" is equivalent word to cost sparing and "scope" is synonymous with widening generation/benefits through differentiated items.

4 0
3 years ago
The yield on a one-year Treasury security is 5.3800%, and the two-year Treasury security has a 6.4560% yield. Assuming that the
Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

7.5430%

Explanation:

Treasury securities are the governmental bills, notes, and bonds.

Yield is the amount you earn by holding on to these treasury securities.

Given yield on 1-year Treasury security = 5.38% = 0.0538

and

yield on 2 year Treasury security = 6.456% = 0.06456

THe formula to use would be:

\frac{(1+r_{2})^n}{(1+r_{1})^n}-1

Where

r_2 is the yield of 2 year security  (here, n = 2)

and

r_1 is the yield of 1 year security ( here, n = 1)

Now, substituting, we get:

\frac{(1+r_{2})^n}{(1+r_{1})^n}-1\\=\frac{(1+0.06456)^2}{(1+0.0538)}-1\\=0.075430

<u>Converting this to percentage:</u>

0.075430 * 100 = 7.5430%

3 0
3 years ago
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