Axis would have probably wiped out most of its West-European enemies. Canada would probably have tried to fight against America and failed, getting its armies crushed, or stayed on the defensive. Hitler would probably have had more troops and peace of mind tromping around around the Soviet grounds, and would have lost a lot less manpower than when the US actually went to war in the real WWII. Since I'm assuming that in this hypothetical scenario, the US was allied with Japan, Pearl Harbor never happened. Japan and America would both have undisputed hold of the Pacific, with America's (unsunken) battleships and aircraft carriers along with Japanese suprbattleships like the Yamato, and dual force garrisons on the pacific islands. America might have invaded the lower Americas as well, if it didn't stop at securing the border. Mexico might have joined in to help the Axis powers. Then Hitler would still turn on Stalin, still loose an ungodly portion of his army in Russia, get driven back, and start losing the war in the European theatre, at least until axis forces come to back him up, primarily in the form of American Axis soldiers. Then America would lose many men in the Russian front, until it finally invaded Russia somehow (probably after many years and the combined nuclear armaments research being conducted by the US and Nazi Germany.) After invading Russia, Hitler will grow pompous and attempt to invade America with his already weakened force. He would attempt to destroy the remaining American troops in the European/Asian Theatre. America and Japan would probably ally with each other to maintain their hold of the Pacific, and fight back, with a smaller scale D-Day happening (Only made up of Americans) being launched from the invaded and annexed New American Britain or New German Britain or whatever. America would invade Germany, while Germany cannot invade America (see other Quora posts for explanations on why it is virtually impossible to invade America). America ends up with territories and troops spread all across the Pacific, Africa, Russia, Europe, and Asia, with probably troops in Canada and Mexico as well. Consequently, the troops will be brought down through the freedom fighters and rebellions that will ultimately pop up. Hitler shoots himself in the bunker as well.
Lots of bloodshed. Thank god it didn't happen this way! A lot of countries would be utterly in ruins after this version of the World War, not just Poland and Germany and England and Russia and Korea and China (etc.), but who knows how many more countless places. Not to say that I am okay with WWII happening how it did anyway, since it was extremely bloody as well, but... the real WWII was a giant bloody clash of death. This hypothetical one wouldn't have been a clash. It would have been a giant cluster that resulted in possibly twice or three times as many deaths, mostly more civilian deaths in general.
Answer:
george washington necomes first u.s. president 1789
industrialization starts in the united states 1790
john adams becomes president 1797
thomas jefferson becomes president 1801
louisiana purchase 1803
james madison becomes president 1809
war of 1812
james monroe becomes president 1816
monroe doctrine issued 1823
andrew jackson becomes president1829
mexican american war 1846
seneca falls convention 1848
Americans held the balance of power between Appalachian Mountains and the Mississippi River after the American Revolution.
US and Great Britain signed the Treaty of Paris in 1783 to end the American Revolutionary War. The treaty set the boundaries between US and Great Britain territories, including Great Britain's concession of the trans-Appalachian west region to the US.
<span>Due process of law is a constitutional guarantee that prevents governments from impacting citizens in an abusive way. In its modern form, due process includes both procedural standards that courts must uphold in order to protect peoples’ personal liberty and a range of liberty interests that statutes and regulations must not infringe. It traces its origins to Chapter 39 of King John’s Magna Carta, which provides that no freeman will be seized, dispossessed of his property, or harmed except “by the law of the land,” an expression that referred to customary practices of the court. The phrase “due process of law” first appeared as a substitute for Magna Carta’s “the law of the land” in a 1354 statute of King Edward III that restated Magna Carta’s guarantee of the liberty of the subject.</span>
The correct answer would be c
