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3 years ago

7

There are twice as many girls as there are boys in the chess club. If there are 18 girls in the club, how many boys are in the c

lub?
I mark brainliest by today

1 answer:

Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago

5 0

9 because twice as many means x times 2; if there are 18 girls, divide by 2 and you get 9. Nine times two is 18. :)

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What is a theoretical and Experimental Probability?

aniked [119]

Answer:

See below...

Step-by-step explanation:

Theoretical probability is the probability that something should happen based on the beginning conditions. Such as having a jar of 30 marbles with 5 being blue. The probability of pulling out a blue marble when selecting 1 marble is

5/30, or 1/6. Theoretically you should pull one blue marble out every 6 times you pull a marble out.

This isn't guaranteed to happen though, that's where experimental probability comes form.

Experimental probability is the number of desired outcomes achieved, divided by the total number of outcomes. This is based on what actually happened. Say you selected a marble, and put it back 10 times, recording the color each time and you got 2 blue marbles. Your experimental probability is

2/10, or 1/5, which doesn't match the theoretical probability. The more times this experiment is conducted, the closer your result will be to the theoretical probability

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Step-by-step explanation:

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PLEASE HELP URGANT The vertices of a rectangle are R(–5, –5), S(–1, –5), T(–1, 1), and U(–5, 1). A translation maps R to the poi

mote1985 [20]

Answer:

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3 years ago

sergejj [24]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the function:

$\displaystyle f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} 2\cos(\pi x) \text{ for } x \leq -1 \\ \\ \displaystyle \frac{2}{\cos(\pi x)}\text{ for } x > -1 \end{array} \right.$

And we want to find:

$\displaystyle \lim_{x\to -1}f(x)$

So, we need to determine whether or not the limit exists. In other words, we will find the two one-sided limits.

Left-Hand Limit:

$\displaystyle \lim_{x\to-1^-}f(x)$

Since we are approaching from the left, we will use the first equation:

$\displaystyle =\lim_{x\to -1^-}2\cos(\pi x)$

By direct substitution:

$=2\cos(\pi (-1))=2\cos(-\pi)=2(-1)=-2$

Right-Hand Limit:

$\displaystyle \lim_{x\to -1^+}f(x)$

Since we are approaching from the right, we will use the second equation:

$=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to -1^+}\frac{2}{\cos(\pi x)}$

Direct substitution:

$\displaystyle =\frac{2}{\cos(\pi (-1))}=\frac{2}{\cos(-\pi)}=\frac{2}{(-1)}=-2$

So, we can see that:

$\displaystyle \displaystyle \lim_{x\to-1^-}f(x)=\displaystyle \lim_{x\to -1^+}f(x) =-2$

Since both the left- and right-hand limits exist and equal the same thing, we can conclude that:

$\displaystyle \lim_{x \to -1}f(x)=-2$

Our answer is A.

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3 years ago

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yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

Yes looks right

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago