Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = (x+2)(x-2)
Substituting x=1 into f(x):
f(1) = 3*-1
= -3
Since -2 & 2 touch the x-axis, 1 has a negative y value, 2 has a y value of 0, and all values from 2, are positive.
Hence,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 are all positive. Therefore, the answer is 8
This can be confirmed with a graph, as attached below.
<em>Feel free to mark this as brainliest! :D</em>
Answer:
I said, "ive been waiting here for ten minutes!"
"we're very busy today", she replied.
"how will I get home", I inquired.
Answer:
Unbounded, infinite number of solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Graph each inequality separately
2. Choose test point to determine which side of line needs to be shaded
3. The solution will be the the area where the shadings from both inequalities overlap
Since, the overlap almost covers the 2nd and 3rd quadrants there are an infintite number of solutions
Answer:
sorry i dont know
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, so since I don't have an example question, I will make one up.
there are 8 coins in total. there are 6 dimes. What is the fraction of dimes to coins.
you would put the amount of dimes on the top and the total on the bottom.
Answer: 6/8 which can be simplified to 3/4
Or another Example:
There are 12 pieces in the pizza. Billy took 4. what is the fraction of the slices left.
it would be 4-12= 8
Answer: 8/12 which can be simplified to 4/6 and then to 2/3
Hope that helped.
