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2 years ago

How can I do this?

Mathematics

2 answers:

KiRa [710]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Using

Step-by-step explanation:

SOH CAH TOA

Sine = opposite/hypotenuse

Cosine = adjacent/hypotenuse

Tan = opposite/adjacent

rusak2 [61]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the correct method of solving the equation x/3-6=9 for x?

AveGali [126]

Answer: The value of x is 45

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation x/3-6=9 is a linear equation, where x/3 is the same as one-third of x.

Thus it is easily simplified as such:

x/3-6=9

Collect like terms

x/3 = 9 + 6

x/3 = 15

i.e (1/3) of X = 15

To get the value of x, cross multiply

x = 3 x 15

x = 45

Thus, the value of x is 45

6 0

2 years ago

456.05 which digit is in the tenths place

mel-nik [20]

It's the zero in the tenth place

3 0

2 years ago

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

3 0

2 years ago

Y=4, -4y + 5 evaluate it please

Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

−

8 0

2 years ago

I need help any help is appreciated please

Eva8 [605]

Answer:

third option both cost the same after 2 months

4 0

2 years ago

How can I do this? ​

How can I do this?