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VARVARA [1.3K]
2 years ago
14

Jerry Rawls is the purchasing manager for the headquarters of a large insurance company chain with a central inventory operation

at COBA Inc. His data in millions are as follows: Given that their Inventory Turnover is 50 times per year, their Accounts Receivable Turnover is 7 times per year and their Accounts Payable Turnover is 3 times per year, what is their Cash-to-Cash Conversion Cycle
Business
1 answer:
Savatey [412]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: 0.785 days

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle = Days inventory outstanding + Days sales outstanding – Days payable outstanding

Days inventory outstanding = 365/inventory turnover

= 365 / 50

= 7.3 days

Days sales outstanding = 365 / 8

= ‭45.625‬ days

Days payable outstanding = 365 / 7

= 52.14 days

Cash conversion cycle = 7.3 + 45.625 - 52.14

= 0.785 days

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The value of what you owe minus what you owe is called
aliina [53]
Hey there!

I think you meant to type "value of what you <em>own</em> minus what you owe". Let me know if this assumption isn't correct, though I don't know what the value of what you owe is besides... ya know, what you owe. 

The value of what you own is called you assets. This can include anything of value that you own, particularly your pricier possessions. Think of a vintage family heirloom or a highly–priced article of clothing. Assets, though, includes the value <em>everything</em> that you own that you could possibly put a price tag on if you were certain someone would buy it. 

What you owe is called your liability. This is basically any debt that you owe anyone, whether it be your buddy who footed your lunch bill the other day when you didn't have enough cash or a student loan you used to pay for college. 

Your assets minus your liability is called your net worth. This is basically what you are worth in total. This makes sense, since any debt you owe will be taken out of the amount that you are worth or any money that you have.

Net worth will be your answer. 

Hope this helped you out! :-)
4 0
3 years ago
At Lequals86​, Kequals90​, the marginal product of labor is 8 and the marginal product of capital is 2. What is the marginal rat
Sidana [21]

Answer:

0.25

Explanation:

The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) can be described as the rate of a reduction is one factor to maintain the same production level when another factor is increased.

Given that labor is measured on the horizontal axis, the MRST of K for L can be calculated as follows:

MRST_{KL} = \frac{MP_{K} }{MP_{L} }

Where;

MPK =  Marginal product of capital = 2

MPL = Marginal product of labor = 8

Substituting the values into the equation, we have:

MRST_{KL} = \frac{2}{8} =\frac{1}{4} = 0.25

This implies that 0.25 of capital must be given up to have one unit of labor.

3 0
2 years ago
Which professional’s advice is Peter seeking? Peter wants to buy office space for his new business. However, he is not sure if t
Igoryamba
Peter is consulting someone who sells commercial real estate. Peter wants to make sure he's in a good place business wise and that it is the best time before he makes the purchase for a new building. By consulting the agent, he can get a better understanding of when the right time to purchase will be. 
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A new investment opportunity for you is an annuity that pays $550 at the beginning of each year for 3 years. You could earn 5.5%
faltersainse [42]

Answer:

$1,565.48

Explanation:

This is an annuity due type of question since the recurring payments are made at the beginning of each year unlike Ordinary annuity whose payments occur at the end of each period.

With a financial calculator on beginning mode "BGN", use the following inputs to find the PV;

Total duration of investment; N = 3

Recurring payment; PMT = 550

Interest rate; I/Y = 5.5%

One time cashflows; FV = 0

then compute for Present value ; CPT PV = 1,565.476

Therefore, the most you should pay is $1,565.48

6 0
3 years ago
Jackson Fabricators Inc. machines metal parts for the automotive industry. Under the traditional manufacturing approach, the par
Soloha48 [4]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:-

<u>Particulars </u>               Traditional Philosophy     Manufacturing

                                         <u> Lean                        Philosophy</u>

Value added                 2 + 6 = 8                                 8

Non value added        8 × (50 - 1) = 392                   8 × (6 - 1) = 40

Total lead time                   400                                  48

Value-added ratio

(as a percent)              8 ÷ 400 × 100 = 2%                 8 ÷ 48 × 100 = 16.17%

5 0
3 years ago
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