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VARVARA [1.3K]
3 years ago
14

Jerry Rawls is the purchasing manager for the headquarters of a large insurance company chain with a central inventory operation

at COBA Inc. His data in millions are as follows: Given that their Inventory Turnover is 50 times per year, their Accounts Receivable Turnover is 7 times per year and their Accounts Payable Turnover is 3 times per year, what is their Cash-to-Cash Conversion Cycle
Business
1 answer:
Savatey [412]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: 0.785 days

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle = Days inventory outstanding + Days sales outstanding – Days payable outstanding

Days inventory outstanding = 365/inventory turnover

= 365 / 50

= 7.3 days

Days sales outstanding = 365 / 8

= ‭45.625‬ days

Days payable outstanding = 365 / 7

= 52.14 days

Cash conversion cycle = 7.3 + 45.625 - 52.14

= 0.785 days

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The reporting of financial conditions at the corporation so that can be evaluated. b. Legal protections for shareholders so that
gogolik [260]

Answer:

a) Financial Statements

b) Limited Liability

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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Answer:

This is an example of multiple pricing.

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Sometimes if you add all the extra charges, like shipping and handling, you might realize that the product being offered by the infomercial is actually more expensive than similar products that you can buy on retail stores or websites.

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4 0
3 years ago
?_____ are responsible for the creation of tactical plans. ?first-level managers ?top managers ?chief financial officers ?middle
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Middle Managers are responsible for the creation of tactical plans. Middle managers are those people who are in the senior management position. Main roles of middle managers is to make a strategy for the company making sure that the company focus on their goals and targets. The middle managers should also provide quick results is solving the company’s problems.

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3 years ago
Litton Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that the b
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Answer:

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

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Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

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Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 141,800 - 149,375

Overapplied overhead= $7,575

6 0
3 years ago
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