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skelet666 [1.2K]
3 years ago
14

QUESTION 1 of 10: Large-cap stocks have a market capitalization of:

Business
1 answer:
bekas [8.4K]3 years ago
3 0
It’s b I already did the question
You might be interested in
The United Kingdom experienced average annual real GDP per capita growth of 2.3% between 1982 and 2009. Which of the following h
Art [367]

Answer:

False, it is not true that France had the highest level of real GDP per capita in 2019. There were other economies which performed better than France.

The correct option is Privatization of previously nationalized industries because Privatization of nationalized bank contributed to UK's growth.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
Shamrock Company's accounts receivable arising from sales to customers amounted to $142000 and $124000 at the beginning and end
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

$557,000

Explanation:

Operating activities: It includes those transactions which affect the working capital. It means that the increase in current assets and a decrease in current liabilities would be deducted and a Decrease in current assets and an increase in current liabilities would be added.  

The computation is shown below:

= Income reported on the income statement + decrease in account receivable

= $539,000 + $18,000

= $557,000

The decrease in account receivable

= $142,000 in beginning of the year - $124,000 in end of the year

= $18,000

8 0
3 years ago
If you can invest $1,000 today and it will grow to be worth $1,350 over the next 6 years, what is the compound annual return you
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

5.13%

Explanation:

Given:

Worth of investment today (PV) = $1,000

Investment worth after 6 years (FV) = $1,350

Time period of investment (nper) = 6 Years

It is required to compute annual return (RATE). This can be computed using spreadsheet function =RATE(nper,-PV,FV).

Substituting the values, we get =RATE(6,-1000,1350)

                                                      = 5.13%

Present value is negative as it is a cash outflow.

Therefore, annual return is computes as 5.13%.

3 0
3 years ago
Haberdash inc. last year reported sales of $12 million and an inventory turnover ratio of 3. the company is now adopting a just-
Sindrei [870]

<span>Sales = $12,000,000</span>

<span> <span>Inventory Turnover ratio (old) = 3
</span><span>Inventory Turnover ratio (new) = 7.5
</span><span>Freed up Cash = ?
</span><span>So, let’s find out the freed up cash
<span> <span>We know level of inventory are calculated as follows;</span>
<span>Inventory = Sales Inventory turnover ratio</span>
<span>Calculating $ value of old inventory
<span> <span>Inventory Old=$12,000.0003
</span> <span><span>                         =</span>$7.5,000,000</span>
<span>  Calculating $ value of New inventory
<span> <span>Inventory New=$12,000,0075
</span> <span><span>                        =</span>$3,000,000</span>
<span> <span>The freed up cash would be=Old Inventory – New Inventory</span>
<span> <span>=$7.5,000,000 - $3,000,000
</span><span>=<span>$4.5,000,000</span></span></span></span></span></span></span></span></span></span></span>
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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