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Pepsi [2]
3 years ago
7

EB3.

Business
1 answer:
kondaur [170]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Their net operating income for the year was $39,628

Explanation:

Flip or Flop's net operating income for the year = Gross revenue - Cost of Goods Sold - Operating expenses

Their Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) was 21% of gross revenue, therefore:

Cost of Goods Sold = 21% x $93,200 = $19,572

The company has operating expenses for this same period of $34,000.

Net operating income for the year = $93,200 - $19,572 - $34,000 = $39,628

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If accrued salaries were recorded on December 31 with a credit to Salaries Payable, the entry to record payment of these wages o
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

Explanation:

As on December 31, entry to record the expense of Salaries which is accrued and not paid is

Salary A/c Dr.                

  To Salaries Payable

Now on the closing date, of previous year there is a liability outstanding of Salary Payable.

In the next year on 5th January the salary outstanding in opening balance sheet is paid.

For this, the payment will be made and accordingly, cash will be reduced.

Accordingly liability will be reduced for this, liability will be debited.

Therefore, correct option is

c. A debit to Salaries Payable and a credit to Cash.

6 0
3 years ago
The steeper an isoquant is ​(labor measured on the horizontal axis​): A. the greater is the level of output. B. the greater is t
Volgvan

Answer:

C. the greater is the marginal productivity of labor relative to that of capital

Explanation:

An isoquant is a curve that shows all the combinations of inputs that yield the same level of output.

When adding one factor holding the other factor constant inevitably, leads to lower output levels, the isoquant must become steeper, as more capital is added instead of labour, and flatter when labour is added instead of capital. Returns to capital even decline.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Explain why each of the following statements is a rationale for conducting active or passive policy: Economic circumstances can
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

The rationale for conducting active policy is the interest of Congress to alter the state of the economy through a deliberate change in established policies.

But in the case of Passive policy, the government permits the status quo.

Active policy relies on the government to enforce it while passive policy does not need the government's interference to work in stabilizing the economy.

Explanation:

The following statements applies passive policy because the economy is expected to stabilize on it's own without the deliberate act of congress influencing it:

  • Economic circumstances can change dramatically between the time that an economic downturn begins and the time when policy actions have an effect on the economy.
  • Fluctuations in economic output have been less severe since World War II.

The following statements is a rationale for conducting active policy since the government's intervention is required:

  • Economists are not very accurate forecasters.
  • Increases in government spending generate increases in economic output.
6 0
3 years ago
Jacques deposited $1,900 into an account that earns 4% interest compounded semiannually. After t years, Jacques has $3,875.79 in
kupik [55]
A year has two semesters, then
n = 2<span>v(t)=p<span><span>(<span>1+<span>r/2</span></span>)</span><span>2t
</span></span></span><span>
3875.79 = 1900∗<span><span>(<span>1+(<span>0.04/2)</span></span>)^</span><span>2t
</span></span></span><span>
2.0398895 = <span><span>(<span>1+<span>0.042</span></span>)^</span><span>2t
</span></span></span>Apply natural logarithm on both sides

<span>ln(2.0398895) = ln<span>[<span><span>(<span>1+<span>0.042</span></span>)^</span><span>2t</span></span>]

Then simplify,
</span></span><span>0.712896 = 2t∗ln(1.02)

</span><span>t = <span>0.712896 / (<span>2∗ln(1.02))
</span></span></span><span><span>
t=18 years

I hope my answer helped you. Have a nice day!</span></span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is an example of an operational risk for a company that manufactures automobiles?A. A state tax increase
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:C. Damage to completed cars held on a storage lot

Explanation:

Operational risk are the hazards and the uncertainties that are faced by companies in the day to day activities. It may be caused as a result of system failure or manufacturing components.

An example of operational risk for a company that manufactures automobiles would be damage to completed cars held on a storage lot.

7 0
3 years ago
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