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mars1129 [50]
3 years ago
13

Kidney beans $1.18 per pound

Mathematics
1 answer:
Stels [109]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1.18x=y

Step-by-step explanation:

x= amount of pounds of kidney beans

y= the cost

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A plumber charges a one-time service fee of $20 in addition to his hourly rate of $25 per hour. If the plumber went to your hous
Paul [167]

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Aubrey is going to see a movie and is taking her 2 kids. Each movie ticket costs $13 and there are an assortment of snacks avail
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

$51

Step-by-step explanation:

do 13*3 because of the 2 kids and the adult then add 12 because of the snacks

hope this helps

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The diameter of the base of the cone measures 8 units. The height measure 6 units. What is the volume of the cone?
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

The  volume of the cone is  100.48 units³ approximately

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the volume of a cone with a diameter of 8 unit   and height of 6 units, we will follow the steps below;

first, write down the formula for calculating the volume of a cone

v= πr²\frac{h}{3}

where v is the volume of the cone

r is the radius    and h is the height of the cone

from the question given, diameter d = 8 units  but d=2r    which implies  r=d/2

r=8/2 = 4 units

Hence r= 4 units

height = 6 units

π is a constant and is ≈ 3.14

we can now proceed to insert the values into the formula

v= πr²\frac{h}{3}

v ≈ 3.14 × 4² × 6/3

v  ≈ 3.14 × 16 × 2

v ≈ 100 .48 units³

Therefore the  volume of the cone is  100 .48 units³ approximately

6 0
3 years ago
The letters P-R-O-B-A-B-I-L-I-T-Y are written on a set of cards. You mix the cards thoroughly. Without looking, you draw one let
OleMash [197]

Answer:

P(P, then Y)=(1/11)(1/10)=1/110

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of letters in probability is 11.

There is 1 P.

The probability of drawing a P on draw 1 is the number of ways of drawing a P, which is 1, divided by the number of ways of drawing any letter, which is 11.  Thus:

Probability of drawing a P on the first draw is 1/11.

There are now 10 letters left. There is 1 Y. so

Probability of drawing a Y on the second draw given that you drew a P on the first draw is 1/10.

The probability of drawing a P on the first draw and a Y on the second draw is

(probability of a P on draw 1)(probability of drawing a Y on draw 2, given a P on draw 1)

P(P, then Y)=(1/11)(1/10)=1/110

8 0
3 years ago
Please help!
Aloiza [94]

Answer:14%

Step-by-step explanation:

final grade score=a

20% of a=15

20/100 x a=15

20a/100=15

Cross multiply

20a=15 x 100

20a=1500

Divide both sides by 20

20a/20=1500/20

a=75

B% of 75=10.5

B/100 x 75=10.5

75B/100=10.5

Cross multiply

75B=10.5 x 100

75B=1050

Divide both sides by 75

75B/75=1050/75

B=14

7 0
3 years ago
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