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miv72 [106K]
3 years ago
14

Calfee Corporation is a manufacturer that uses job-order costing. The company has supplied the following data for the just compl

eted year: Beginning inventories: Raw materials $ 40,000 Work in process $ 19,000 Estimated total manufacturing overhead at the beginning of the year $595,000 Estimated direct labor-hours at the beginning of the year 35,000 direct labor-hours Results of operations: Raw materials purchased on account $ 423,000 Raw materials (all direct) requisitioned for use in production $ 420,000 Direct labor cost $ 641,000 Actual direct labor-hours 33,000 direct labor-hours Manufacturing overhead: Indirect labor cost $ 143,000 Other manufacturing overhead costs incurred $ 531,000 Cost of goods manufactured $1,441,000 The ending balance in the Work in Process inventory account is:
Business
1 answer:
AlladinOne [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$200,000

Explanation:

The computation of the ending balance in the work in process inventory account is shown below:

But before that determined the overhead rate per direct labor

Manufacturing OH estimated   $595,000  

Divide by DLH estimated 35000  

OH rate per DLH    $17  

Now

Beginning Inventory of WIP   $19,000  

Current manufacturing cost    

material                  $420,000  

Labour                   $641,000  

Manufacturing OH (33,000 × $17) $561000  

Total Manufacturing cost      $1,622,000  

Total cost of WIP       $1,641,000  

Less: Cost of goods manufactured $1,441,000  

Ending inventory of WIP        $200,000

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Weekly demand for tennis balls at The Racquet Club is normally distributed , with a mean of 35 cases and a standard deviation of
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Answer:

a-The average weekly profit is $1767.31

b- The probability of having a weekly profit of more than 2000 is 0.1587 or 15.87%.

Explanation:

a

The weekly average profit for the simulation is given where first the values are simulated using R which is given as below:

x<-round(rnorm(n,m,s))

Here

  • round converts all the values of the simlation to integer.
  • rnorm is the command for simulation
  • n is the number of values which is 52 in this case
  • m is the mean of the values which is 35
  • s is the value of standard deviation which is 5 cases.

The values of x are as follows

[1] 36 49 30 29 34 36 32 28 32 29 32 27 40 32 30 37 43 30 42 30 31 34 36 38 28 29 32 42 36 35

[31] 37 41 34 39 37 46 34 44 45 41 41 29 36 38 35 32 36 39 30 38 40 27

Now using these values, the average of the simulation values is cacluated as follows:

mean(x)

35.3462

Now using this with the value of profit of $50 gives:

Average Profit=$50 x 35.3462

Average Profit=$1767.31

The average weekly profit is $1767.31

b-

First number of cases are required so that the value will be greater than 2000 it is given as

Number of cases=2000/50=40

So firstly the Z-score is calculated which is as below:

Z=\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\Z=\dfrac{40-35}{5}\\Z=1

Now the probability is given as

P(X\geq 40)=P(Z\geq 1)\\P(X\geq 40)=1-P(Z< 1)

The value of P(Z<1) is calculated from the table which is given as

0.84134

So the equation becomes

P(X\geq 40)=1-P(Z< 1)\\P(X\geq 40)=1-0.8413\\P(X\geq 40)=0.1587

So the probability of having a weekly profit of more than 2000 is 0.1587 or 15.87%.

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