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kherson [118]
2 years ago
14

Classify the equation as having one solution, infinitely many solutions or no

Mathematics
1 answer:
ICE Princess25 [194]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

No solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify both sides of the equation as much as possible:

9r + 5 - 4 = 4r + 5r - 12

9r + 1 = 9r - 12

Both sides have "9r" which when cancel out, leave the equation as:

+1 = -12

This means there are no solutions.

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CALCULUS RELATED RATES: A 20 foot ladder is leaning against a wall. The base of the ladder is placed 6 feet from the bottom of t
Daniel [21]

Answer:

2.17ft/s

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the sketch of ladder at the beginning and after 3 seconds it starts to fall,

Distance of ladder from the wall 3 seconds after ladder starts to fall                                       =  Initial distance+  Velocity× time

= 6 + 2×3

= 12ft

Use trignometry to find out the speed of the top of ladder

cosθ= 12/20

θ= 0.825 rad

tan θ= v/2

v= 2.17ft/s

                                                                     

7 0
3 years ago
Write 603,478 in word form
Irina18 [472]
Six hundred three thousand four hundred seventy-eight
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help with please
Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

x - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

2x - 1 + 4x - 11

First, you want to combine like terms.

We can see that the one and eleven can go together, so add them together.

2x + 4x - 12

The reason that we made one, and eleven, negative twelve, is because they are both being subtracted from the numbers before that.

6x - 12

We added the 2x, and the 4x together to make 6x.

Another way to write this would be x - 2, because you can simplify it by dividing it by 6.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How to solve Y = eight, X =2 and direct variation
rodikova [14]

Answer:

The answer is k = 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Y = 8 and X = 2.

Now, to solve direct variation.

y direct with x.

Now, using equation to solve direct variation:

y=kx

8=k\times 2

Dividing both sides by 2 we get:

4=k.

Therefore, the answer is k = 4.

5 0
3 years ago
Find a common multiple between 30 and 42 that is bigger than them.
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

210

Step-by-step explanation:

GCF(30,42) = 6

LCM(30,42) = ( 30 × 42) / 6

LCM(30,42) = 1260 / 6

LCM(30,42) = 210

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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