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yulyashka [42]
3 years ago
10

Skysong, Inc. had net credit sales during the year of $1090600 and cost of goods sold of $604000. The balance in accounts receiv

able at the beginning of the year was $114000 and at the end of the year was $152000. What was the accounts receivable turnover?
A. 10.20
B. 5.00
C. 8.20
D. 6.90
Business
1 answer:
blagie [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

8.2 times

Explanation:

The first step is to calculate the average receivable

= $114,000+$152,000/2

= $266,000/2

= $133,000

Therefore the accounts receivables turn over can be calculated as follows

= net sales / average receivable

= $1,090,000/$133,000

= 8.2 times

Hence the account receivable turnover is 8.2 times

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Which of the following BEST describes a company's proper liquidity management?
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.

Explanation:

Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.

For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.

Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.

Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.

Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How many government agencies does the united kingdom have to oversee the financial industry?
Leni [432]
I believe the answer is: one

The name of the government agency is Financial Service authority (FSA).
FSA would act as a <span>a quasi-judicial body that had the power to regulate the whole financial sector in united kingdom. Even though they are a part of government agencies, they do not work directly under any government official.</span>

6 0
3 years ago
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Bonds are a form of ________, with bond prices and interest rates that move in _________ . a. equity; the same direction b. equi
forsale [732]

Answer:

(d) debt; opposite direction

Explanation:

Bonds or debentures represent fixed interest bearing instruments issued by corporates to raise long term funds i.e usually greater than 1 year repayable after a fixed duration.

Bonds could be of various forms such as zero coupon bonds, deep discount bonds, face value bonds etc

The common aspect of all being bonds represent debt which a corporation owes which must be repaid after a fixed duration. Also bonds demand periodic interest payments i.e fixed obligation which cannot be refused by the issuer company.

There is an inverse relationship between bond prices and market interest rates.

Reason : This is because if a higher interest rate prevails in the market than the coupon rate offered by the issuer, the issuer will have to reduce the price of it's bonds so as to make them attractive else investors would rather invest in other bonds in the market offering a higher rate of return.

7 0
3 years ago
When facing a shortage, what can be expected?
Schach [20]
When facing a shortage you should expect .......
8 0
2 years ago
A financial analyst expects KacieCo. to pay a dividend of $3 per share one year from today, a dividend of $3.50 per share in yea
Helga [31]

Answer:

If your required return on KacieCo stock is 15 %, the most you would be willing to pay for the stock today if you plan to sell the stock in two years is $26.43

Explanation:

Accoring to the given data we have the following:

D1= $3

D2=$3.50

P2=$28

Ks=15%

Therefore, in order to calculate the most P0 you would be willing to pay for the stock today if you plan to sell the stock in two years, you would have to use the following formula:

P0 = PV of D1 + Pv of D2 + PV of P2

P0 = D1/(1+ks)^1 + D2/(1+Ks)^2 + P2/(1+Ks)^2

P0 = 3/(1+15%) + 3.5/(1+15%)^2 + 28/(1+15%)^2 = $26.43

6 0
3 years ago
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