The answer is 23 i believe
Answer:
Last Option
Explanation:
I'm not sure about this one so I had to google the equation real quick.
The equation for the derivative of an inverse is:
![[f^{-1}(x)]'=\frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Bf%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%5D%27%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Bf%27%28f%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%29%7D)
From my understanding of the format, it might look like a hard equation to understand but its pretty simple.
The inverse derivative is 1 divided by the derivative of f(x), except you plug in f⁻¹(x) into that derivative.
F'(x)=(2/3(x^2-2x-1)^-1/3 )*(2x-2) chain rule here
f'(0) is equals to substitute x with 0. Which gives
f'(0)= (2/3(-1)^-1/3)*(-2)
Plug in the calculator, and your answer is ready