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GarryVolchara [31]
3 years ago
10

The histogram and box plots below show the distribution of finishing times for male and female winners of the New York Marathon

between 1970 and 1999.
Business
1 answer:
weeeeeb [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Explanation:

A.)

From the histogram, the number of runners who made a certain range of Runtime can be easily deduced on the y-axis of the histogram, which isn't possible on the boxplot.

Summary statistic such as lower quartile, median and upper quartile statistics including outliers can be deduced easily from the boxplot.

B.)

Bimodal distribution occurs when two different groups or class have the highest number of values in a distribution.

C.)

The distribution of marathon times for men is fairly normally distributed while that if women is skewed.

The minimum and maximum values in the women's distribution is greater than the minimum and maximum values in the men's distribution.

The women's distribution has greater variance than the men's distribution. (greater range value).

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Productive inefficiency could arise from a. a waste of available labor b. a lack of resources c. an improvement in technology d.
kolezko [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is a. a waste of available labor.

Explanation:

Productive efficiency (also known as technical efficiency) occurs when the economy is using all its resources efficiently, producing maximum production with minimum resources. The concept is illustrated in the Production Opportunity Frontier (FPP) in which all points of the curve are the points of maximum productive efficiency (that is, no more products can be achieved from the present resources).

This happens when the production of an economic good is achieved at the lowest possible cost, given the production of another good (s). In other words, when it is achieved, given the need to produce other goods, the highest possible productivity of a good. In a situation of long-term equilibrium for markets in perfect competition, it is where the average cost is the base on the average of the total cost curve, that is, the cost curve where CM = A (T) C.

6 0
4 years ago
Which of the following is the formula for break-even point in sales dollars? A : Fixed costs divided by contribution margin rati
ruslelena [56]

Answer:

B. Fixed costs divided by unit contribution margin

Explanation:

In sales dollars, Break-Even point = Fixed Costs ÷ Contribution Margin.

Break-Even point in (units) = Fixed Costs / (Sales price per unit - Variable costs per unit).

The Break even point is a measure of which a company can determine if when the product its manufactured or produced will start to be profitable.

8 0
3 years ago
Why is it important to be informed about economic activity
Dennis_Churaev [7]
Because it just is ok
7 0
3 years ago
14. Suppose that the production of $1 million worth of steel in Canada requires $100,000 worth of taconite. Canada’s nominal tar
VMariaS [17]

Answer:

The effective rate of protection for Canada’s steel industry is 21%

Explanation:

The computation of the effective rate is shown below:

Steel percentage = (Production worth of steel) ÷ (Taconite worth)

                             = ($1,000,000) ÷ ($100,000)

                             = 10%

And the tariff rate for steel is 20%

And the taconite percentage is 10%

So, the effective rate would be equal to

= Tariff rate for steel + taconite percentage × steel percentage

= 20% + 10% × 10%

= 20% + 1%

= 21%

7 0
3 years ago
An individual is now 50 years old, that he plans to retire in 10 years, and that he expects to live for 25 years after he retire
Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

Ans.  He must save during each of the following 10 years, at the end of each year $32,452.

Explanation:

Hi, in order to find the amount of money that he should have in ten years so he can receive an annual payment of $65,156 for 25 more years (24 payments), we need to bring to present value all 24 payments to year 10. Let me show you the formula.

PresentValue_{10} =\frac{A((1+r)^{n}-1) }{r(1+r)^{n} }

Where:

A= $65,156

n= 24

r= 0.08

Therefore the present value in year 10 is:

PresentValue_{10} =\frac{65,156((1+0.08)^{24}-1) }{0.08(1+0.08)^{24} }=686,012

So that is our present value in year 10, or to put it in other words, our future value (if we look at it from year 0). Now we need to find the annuity (amount to save) that with account for $686,012, plus that $100,000 that he already has saved.

Every should look like this.

686,012=100,000*(1+0.08)^{10} +\frac{A((1+0.08)^{10}-1) }{0.08(1+0.08)^{10} }

And we solve this equation for "A".

686,012=A(14.4865625)+215,892

A=\frac{(686,012-215,892)}{14.4865625} =32,452

Best of luck.

5 0
3 years ago
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