1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Korvikt [17]
3 years ago
11

Doc B: Why is Andrew Carnegie comfortable with the fact that some people are rich and some people

History
1 answer:
kogti [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: In each case Carnegie is referring to the accumulation and unequal distribution of wealth, which have “revolutionized” human life for the good (“highly beneficial”). In the above paragraph, he goes further by saying this unequal distribution of wealth and the benefits it bestows are a “law of civilization.”Carnegie, a steel magnate, argued that very wealthy men like him had a responsibility to use their wealth for the greater good of society. He reasoned that rich men were the smartest and most organized in a society, so they would be best suited to administer their own wealth.

You might be interested in
Do you think federal judges should be elected? Explain why or why not.
cricket20 [7]
Yes because those making decisions at a federal level should be appointed by the people to help prevent corruption.
6 0
2 years ago
Warm up: Why do you think you get the school day off for Labor day (first weekend in<br> September)?
Basile [38]

Answer:

me sorry so me can't help

3 0
3 years ago
Why did the peasants in China revolt against the landowners? A.They wanted to take over the land. B.They grew tired of the harsh
lianna [129]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Why is the size of the figures on the Standard of Ur significant?
AURORKA [14]
Imma look for these in my notes I might have the answer for this sure I’ll help you out
4 0
4 years ago
This was the name of frances possessions in the new world before 1763
Verizon [17]

New France was the name of Frances possessions in the new world before 1763

<u>Explanation:</u>

New France was the name of the region of America in the northern side of America which was colonized by France. This was also known as the Royal New France or the empire of the French North American.

It was the area which France had colonized. This started with the exploration of the the area of gulf of Saint Lawrence and it started in the year of 1534. But this name was only used till the time of 1763.

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Government
    14·1 answer
  • In the Dred Scott case, the Supreme Court decided
    9·1 answer
  • Which statement about independent e elusive agencies is most accurate?
    8·2 answers
  • What were two of the reasons for the Great Schism?
    9·2 answers
  • How did the cotton gin affect plantation owners?
    6·2 answers
  • What us action in 1941 angered the japanese and resulted in the bombing of pearl harbor
    11·2 answers
  • Who gets to decide how many federal courts we have
    7·1 answer
  • Refer to the article “Making Money” in your Money, Money, Money magazine for a complete version of this text.
    13·2 answers
  • Which phrase tells how the Hawaiian culture was characterized for centuries before Europeans and Americans came to the Hawaiian
    10·2 answers
  • Which statement gives the best reason why the first civilizations developed along rivers?
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!