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Stels [109]
3 years ago
15

Pythagorean Theorem Coloring By Number Plis help , I don’t understand this assignment!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gre4nikov [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Ahh. I see your troubles with this.

Step-by-step explanation:

So what the paper wants you to do is utilize the Pythagorean Theorem, to find the answer to each question, and whatever answer that turns out to be, you'll color the square with that color.

I'll walk you through the first one! I hope you can do the rest on your own.

Okay, the hypotenuse is 10, and one of the legs is 6. Time to input that!

(a^2=b^2+c^2 <- Pythagorean Theorem, where a is the hypotenuse, b and c are the legs.)

100=36+x^2\\x^2=64\\x=8

There you go, there's your first answer!

This means that you have to color the square Orange!

Happy Pythagoring!

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Enter the correct value so that each expression is a perfect square trinomial
myrzilka [38]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1). x² - 10x + a²

  By using the formula of (a - b)² = a² - 2ab + b²

  x² - 2(5)x + a²

  Therefore, for a perfect square of the expression a should be equal to 5.

  Therefore, (x² - 10x + 25) will be the answer.

2). x² + 2ax + 36

  = x² + 2(a)x + 6²

  For a perfect square of the given expression value of a should be 6.

   x² + 2(a)x + 6² = x² + 2(6)x + 6²

                           = (x + 6)²

  Therefore, x² + 12x + 36 will be the answer.

3). x^{2}+\frac{1}{2}x+a^2

    x^{2}+2(\frac{1}{4})x+a^2

   To make this expression a perfect square,

   a² = (\frac{1}{4})^2

   x^{2}+2(\frac{1}{4})x+(\frac{1}{4})^2 = (x+\frac{1}{4})^2

  Therefore, the missing number will be \frac{1}{16}.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the perimeter of a 81cm^2 area?
avanturin [10]
36 cm is the answer to your question
3 0
3 years ago
HELP! hope i get a good grade! thanks to everyone for helping out!
just olya [345]

It is a right triangle, angle bmw

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The letters P-R-O-B-A-B-I-L-I-T-Y are written on a set of cards. You mix the cards thoroughly. Without looking, you draw one let
OleMash [197]

Answer:

P(P, then Y)=(1/11)(1/10)=1/110

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of letters in probability is 11.

There is 1 P.

The probability of drawing a P on draw 1 is the number of ways of drawing a P, which is 1, divided by the number of ways of drawing any letter, which is 11.  Thus:

Probability of drawing a P on the first draw is 1/11.

There are now 10 letters left. There is 1 Y. so

Probability of drawing a Y on the second draw given that you drew a P on the first draw is 1/10.

The probability of drawing a P on the first draw and a Y on the second draw is

(probability of a P on draw 1)(probability of drawing a Y on draw 2, given a P on draw 1)

P(P, then Y)=(1/11)(1/10)=1/110

8 0
3 years ago
The area of the rectangle below is<br> . sq. units.
ANEK [815]

Answer:

A, 66

Step-by-step explanation:

A= lw

l=22

Please mark brainliest.

w=3

22*3=66

8 0
4 years ago
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