MrBillDoesMath!
Discussion:
For every value of x, g(x) = f(x) -1 meaning that the y-value of g(x) is 1 less than the corresponding y value of f(x). So the graph of g(x) is "below" f(x) or it is translated 1 unit downward from f(x)
MrB
Answer:
<DFA
Step-by-step explanation:
When combined (<DFA and <DFE), they'll form 90 degrees which will make them complementary
Answer:b
Step-by-step explanation:i took the test its right i promise
Answer: f(x)=
has all real value as its domain.
Explanation: since, we have three functions f(x)=
,
while g(x) and p(x) are line segments.
Now, g(x) is a function by a line segment which passes through two points (-1.8,-3) and ( 1,3.8).
Thus it is clear that its domain will be the ends points. so domain of the function g(x) will be [-1.8, 3.8] which is the subset of real numbers set (R).
Similarly, domain of function p(x) will be [1.7, 1], which is also the subset of R.
But, when we talk about f(x) it contains all the possible value of x. Thus we can say that
has R as its domain.