Answer:
value of the bond = $2,033.33
Explanation:
We know,
Value of the bond, ![B_{0} = [I * \frac{1 - (1 + i)^{-n}}{i}] + \frac{FV}{(1 + i)^n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B_%7B0%7D%20%3D%20%5BI%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%281%20%2B%20i%29%5E%7B-n%7D%7D%7Bi%7D%5D%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7BFV%7D%7B%281%20%2B%20i%29%5En%7D)
Here,
Face value of par value, FV = $2,000
Coupon payment, I = Face value or Par value × coupon rate
Coupon payment, I = $2,000 × 6.04%
Coupon payment, I = $128
yield to maturity, i = 6.1% = 0.061
number of years, n = 15
Therefore, putting the value in the formula, we can get,
![B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1 + 0.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1 + 0.061)^7}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B_%7B0%7D%20%3D%20%5B128%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%281%20%2B%200.061%29%5E%7B-7%7D%7D%7B0.061%7D%5D%20%2B%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2%2C000%7D%7B%281%20%2B%200.061%29%5E7%7D%5D)
or, ![B_{0} = [128 * \frac{1 - (1.061)^{-7}}{0.061}] + [\frac{2,000}{(1.061)^7}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B_%7B0%7D%20%3D%20%5B128%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B1%20-%20%281.061%29%5E%7B-7%7D%7D%7B0.061%7D%5D%20%2B%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B2%2C000%7D%7B%281.061%29%5E7%7D%5D)
or, ![B_{0} = [128 * \frac{0.3393}{0.061}] + 1,321.3635](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B_%7B0%7D%20%3D%20%5B128%20%2A%20%5Cfrac%7B0.3393%7D%7B0.061%7D%5D%20%2B%201%2C321.3635)
or, ![B_{0} = [128 * 5.5623] + 1,321.3635](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B_%7B0%7D%20%3D%20%5B128%20%2A%205.5623%5D%20%2B%201%2C321.3635)
or,
$711.9738 + 1,321.3635
Therefore, value of the bond = $2,033.33
Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>
Machine A</h2>
= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>
Machine B</h2>
No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer: The new divisor for the price-weighted index is 0.77982
Explanation:
Divisor = [(94 + 312/2 + 90) / [(94 + 312 + 90) / 3]
= 0.77982
Answer:
<em>$111.11 or 111.11% of face value</em>
Explanation:
Assuming the face value of $100 for all bonds (without loss of generality)
If the two year coupon bond is repackaged as a one year zero coupon bond paying $12 after one year and another two year bond paying $112 after 2 years, the price of the two zero coupon bonds are given as
Price of one year Zero coupon bond = 12/1.05 = $11.43 (one year ZCB has YTM of 5%)
Price of two year Zero coupon bond = 112/1.06^2 = $99.68 (two year ZCB has YTM of 6%)
So, one can sell the repackaged bonds at a price = $11.43+ $99.68 = $111.11 or 111.11% of face value
Answer:
Assuming that the elimination of frequent-flyer programs would have enabled the airlines to earn higher profits and remain in business, then it would be a purely good idea for the airlines to eliminate their frequent-flyer programs.
The big question is, how much did the frequent-flyer programs cost the airlines? Would the cost-savings be sufficient to eliminate their bankruptcies? It is a known-fact that the airlines that create such programs always recover the program costs by charging higher fares.
Explanation:
The issue of airlines going bankruptcy does not seem to stem from customer-loyalty programs like the frequent-flyer programs. The root cause lies in operational and other costs that airline managements have not been able to control.