Answer:
FV= $75,437.02
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Number of cash flows= 5
Cash flow= $10,000
Total number of periods= 10 years
Interest rate= 6% compounded annually
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value of the 5 cash flows in 5 years using the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {10,000*[(1.06^5) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $56,370.93
<u>Now, the value at the end of 10 years:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 56,370.93*(1.06^5)
FV= $75,437.02
Answer:
Statements "A" is true.
Explanation:
During a financial recession and a cynical domain, the yield spread between government securities and corporate securities could be higher than during great monetary occasions. This is because the grounds that during a recession, corporate securities would convey more hazard, (for example, higher default chance) than during great monetary occasions. To make up for this extra hazard, financial specialists would request more returns.
Answer: Controlling PMO
Explanation:
Controlling PMO works as an auditor for the company, tis check the organization tools, processes and ensures if standard are applied in projects. They are known by their level at which they control projects, they manage the project activities and budget. Actions are taken into place when measures are not met in the processes, tools and standard.
The era of the marketing evolution in which firms begin to focus on what consumers wanted and needed before designing, making, or selling a product is market-oriented era.
<h3>
What is the market-oriented era?</h3>
It should be noted that around the year 1940s when industries realized that focusing only on their business needs and as a result of this the customers are unsatisfied.
However, the businesses' marketing tactics that is been engaged that time is identifying what customers need and effectively customizing activities .
Find out more on market-oriented era at brainly.com/question/12439497
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Answer:
It will take approximately 55 years
Explanation:
<em>The future value of a lump sum is the amount expected at a future date when a sum of money is invested today at a particular rate of interest for certain number of years</em>
FV = PV × (1+r)^(n)
FV= 50,000, PV = 4,000, n-?, r- 5%
50,000 = 4,000 × (1.05)^n
divide both sides by 4000
12.5 = 1.05^n
n= log 12.5/log 1.05
n = 51.8
The number of years = 51.8 + 3 years
=54.767
Approximately 55 years
It will take 55 years
