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anzhelika [568]
2 years ago
11

A worthless security had a holding period of six months when it became worthless on December 10, 2020. The investor who had owne

d the security had a basis of $20,000 for it. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The investor has a long-term capital loss of $20,000.
b. The investor has a short-term capital loss of $20,000.
c. The investor has a nondeductible loss of $20,000.
d. The investor has a short-term capital gain of $20,000.
Business
1 answer:
mariarad [96]2 years ago
6 0

Answer: B. The investor has a short-term capital loss of $20,000.

Explanation:

A short-term loss occurs when a deficit is realized when there's a sale of an asset which has been held by the person for a period of one year or less.

In this case, since the security was worthless, it's a loss and was also help for six months which is less than one year, then it's a short term capital loss.

Therefore, the correct option is B

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One thing that helps incumbents win reelection is ______________, which might include federal spending projects benefiting state
Temka [501]

One thing that helps incumbents win reelection ,which might include federal spending projects benefitting state and local governments, businesses, colleges, and other institutions in a congressional district is

the pork barrel.

Pork barrel :

Pork barrel, or simply pork, is a metaphor for the appropriation of government spending for localized projects secured solely or primarily to bring money to a representative's district.

What is the problem of pork barrel?

The Priority Development Assistance Fund scam, also called the PDAF scam or the pork barrel scam, is a political scandal involving the alleged misuse by several members of the Congress of the Philippines of their Priority Development Assistance Fund (PDAF, popularly called "pork barrel"), a lump-sum discretionary fund

Learn more about pork barrel:

brainly.com/question/25553299

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5 0
1 year ago
The competitive firm's supply curve is equal to A. the portion of its marginal cost curve that lies on and above AFC. B. its mar
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

a. the portion of its marginal cost curve that lies above the AVC

Explanation:

In short run, a perfectly competitive produces as long as its price is above its AVC, so revenues can cover total variable cost. If price is below AVC, the firm has to shut down. Since such a firm maximizes profit by equating Price with MC, this condition means that firm's supply curve is its MC curve lying above the (minimum point of) AVC curve.

6 0
2 years ago
Ash, Inc., has declared a dividend of $6.30 per share. Suppose capital gains are not taxed, but dividends are taxed at 20 percen
alexira [117]

Answer:

$89.41

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Dividend declared = $6.30 per share

Tax rate = 20%

Selling price of the stock = $94.45

Now,

Aftertax dividend = Dividend × ( 1 - Tax rate )

= $6.30 × ( 1 - 0.20 )

= $5.04

Thus,

Ex-dividend price = Selling price - Aftertax dividend

or

Ex-dividend price = $94.45 - $5.04

or

Ex-dividend price = $89.41

8 0
3 years ago
Which demographic category reported the least amount of stress during 1983, 2006, and 2009?
Allisa [31]
<span>Retired people reported the least amount of stress during 1983, 2006, and 2009. Retired people obviously do not have to deal with the stress of a career or job, they most likely do not have to raise children and they are free to engage in any pleasurable activity they please.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Fowler is expected to pay a dividend of $1.81 one year from today and $1.96 two years from today. The company has a dividend pay
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

$77.34

Explanation:

The computation of the current stock price is shown below:

But before that following calculations need to be done

EPS for year 2 = Dividend at year 2 ÷ Payout Ratio

= $1.96 ÷  0.40

= $4.90

Now  the price at year 2 is

Price at year 2 ÷ EPS at year 2 = PE ratio

Price at year 2 ÷ $4.90 = 18.95

Price at year 2 = $92.855

Now finally the current stock price is

= Dividend at year 1  ÷ (1 + rate of interest) + Dividend at year 2 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^2 + Price at year 2 ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^2

= $1.81 ÷ 1.119 + $1.96 ÷ 1.119^2 + $92.855 ÷ 1.119^2

= $77.34

6 0
2 years ago
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