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alexdok [17]
3 years ago
6

I need the answer ASAP Why did the founding fathers tie property qualifications to voting?

History
1 answer:
salantis [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The founding fathers tie property qualifications to voting, thinking  that a power belongs to them.

It is the simple answer that someone could demonstrate as an excuse of power and more qualifications be given.

This is what they expected; the unique factor of political, social and economic qualifications to be taken and belong to them with a persistent dominated way against the minorities.

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The idea of the Red Scare (1947) would spread amongst the American people (and other capitalist countries) this was the rapid fear of communisim spreading into our governments and taking over slightenly. This would lead to people being fired, black-listed, and prosecutions of suspected communist.

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