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EastWind [94]
3 years ago
11

Mr. Dealer bought a fleet of SUVs (sport utility vehicles) from General Motors (GM) on credit, GM agreeing not to assign the res

ulting account receivable without Dealer's consent. GM later, without debtor dealer's consent, assigned the account to The Bank of New York (BNY) for consideration. Dealer made payments to BNY, but claimed damages from GM for breach of contract. 1. Could Dealer collect damages from GM
Business
1 answer:
Temka [501]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes, Dealer could collect damages from GM because basically GM breached the contract. Any time a contract is breached, the non-breaching party can sue. But the real question here is what amount could the court assign to Dealer as compensation for damages incurred. If you want to rephrase this question, it would be: What damages did Dealer suffer due to GM's breach.

If the damages are not significant, then the court will probably assign some amount for nominal damages. To be honest, the greatest expenses here are actually the legal costs of the lawsuit. Unless Dealer can prove that assigning the contract actually hurt them (which I doubt), then the court will assign a small amount. Sometimes nominal damages can be very small and mostly symbolic, e.g. $1.

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The Morris Corporation has $350,000 of debt outstanding, and it pays an interest rate of 12% annually. Morris's annual sales are
Anni [7]

Answer:

TIE 2.47

Explanation:

\frac{EBIT}{InterestExpense} = $Times Interest Earned

Our first step will be calculate the interest expense

350,000 debt outstanding * 12% rate = 42,000

Next, we need the EBIT which means Earnings Before Interest and Taxes.

Using the net profit margin of 3% we can get the net income

This means 3% of sales become net income

We are going to apply this to Morris sales to get the net income

1,750,000 * 0.03 = 52,500

Now this include the interest and taxes, we need to get the Earning before those two concepts so:

\frac{NetIncome}{1-Tax Rate} + $Interest Expense = Earnings Before Interest and Taxes

52,500/(1-0.40)+42,000 = 87,500 + 42,000 = 129,500

Now we got everything needed for the TIE

129,500/52,500 = 2.47

3 0
3 years ago
Theresa leased a one-bedroom apartment from Landlady for one year at $500 per month. After three months, she vacated the apartme
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

She owes 4500 because she leased the apartment for 1 year and her yearly total would be 6,000 but since she left after three months the amount she paid was 1,500 and 6,000 - 1,500 is 4,500 that is how much she owes.

Explanation:

I hope this helped have a great day!

5 0
3 years ago
Why do we record Direct deposits into the CPJ
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Explanation:

Because those payments are done for creditors, repayment of loans and other expenses

6 0
1 year ago
The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $
diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

= inflows * 3.8887

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

6 0
2 years ago
Bramble Corporation had January 1 and December 31 balances as follows. 1/1/17 12/31/17 Inventory $112,000 $133,000 Accounts paya
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

$604,000

Explanation:

Given that,

                                  Opening            Closing

Inventory                   $112,000           $133,000

Accounts payable     $55,000           $64,000

Cost of goods sold = $592,000

Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Purchases - Closing stock

Purchases = Cost of goods sold - Opening stock + Closing stock

                  = $592,000 - $112,000 + $133,000

                  = $613,000

Bramble’s 2017 cash payments to suppliers:

= Opening accounts payable + Purchases - Closing accounts payable

= $55,000 + $613,000 - $64,000

= $604,000

8 0
3 years ago
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