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podryga [215]
3 years ago
11

A process control system costs $200,000, has a three year service life, and a salvage value of $20,000. Find the depreciation an

d book value for all three years using each of the following methods: a. Straight line depreciation (20 points) b. Sum of year digits depreciation (20 points) c. Double declining balance depreciation (20 points)
Business
1 answer:
Advocard [28]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A.

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =$80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

B.

Depreciation expense in year 1 =$90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 =$60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 =$30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 =$110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

C.

Depreciation expense in year 1 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 =  $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 = $7,407.40

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($200,000 - $20,000) / 3 = $60,000

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $60,000 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =  $140,000 - $60,000 = $80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $80,000 - $60,000 = $20,000

Sum-of-the-year digits = (remaining useful life / sum of the years ) x  (Cost of asset - Salvage value)

Sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 years

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (3/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (1/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $90,000 = $110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $110,000 - $60,000 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $50,000 - $30,000 = $20,000

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/3

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (2/3) x $200,000 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $133,333.33 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/3) x $66,666.67 = $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $66,666.67 - $44,444.45= $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (2/3) x$22,222.22 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 =$22,222.22 - $14,814.16 = $7,407.40

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Answer:

a) a downward shift in the AFC curve

Explanation:

AFC = Average Fixed Cost, AVC = Average Variable Cost, MC = Marginal Cost

Average Fixed Cost is defined as the fixed cost of production divided by the quantity produced. Mathematically given as:

Average Fixed Cost = Fixed Cost ÷ Quantity

AVC = FC ÷ Q

Average Variable Cost is defined as the variable cost of production divided by the quantity produced. Mathematically given as:

AFC = VC ÷ Q

Marginal Cost is defined as the cost incurred for an additional unit to be produced. Mathematically given as:

MC = ΔC ÷ ΔQ

The firm discovered a more efficient technology implies that the cost of production is reduced. The result of this is that the fixed cost (FC) is reduced and consequently, the AFC is reduced as well. Hence, the AFC curve shifts downward. We therefore see that a reduction in fixed costs (due to the discovery of a more efficient technology) results in the AFC curve shifting downwards

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3 years ago
Altoon Manufacturing's records were partially destroyed in a flood. The company does not know what sales have been for the year,
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Answer:

a. $164,000

Explanation:

The computation of the Altoon Manufacturing's sales for the year until the flood is given below:

= Cash collections + ending receivables - opening receivables

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On January 1, 2016, Brian's stock portfolio is worth $100,000. On September 30, 2016, $5,000 is withdrawn from the portfolio, an
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Answer:

1.93%

Explanation:

The time weighted rate of return will be computed by combining the return at every time period demarcated by a withdrawal/addition.

<em>Time 1: Jan 1, 2016 to Sep 30, 2016</em>

start value = 100,000; end value = (105,000+5,000) = 110,000

Return = \frac{110,000}{100,000}=1.1

<em>Time 2: Sep 30, 2016 to Sep 30, 2017</em>

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Return = \frac{108,000}{105,000}=1.028571

<em>Time 3: Sep 30, 2017 to Dec 31, 2017</em>

start value = (108,000 + 3,000) = 111,000; end value = 100,000

Return = \frac{100,000}{111,000}=0.900901.

Therefore, time weighted return

= (1.1 * 1.028571 * 0.900901) - 1

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