Answer: sole proprietor
Explanation: because you are the only owner to the businesses
C) Do you have a good credit report and credit score?
Answer:
WACC without debt is higher by = 1.7%
Explanation:
<em>The weighted Average cost of Capital (WACC) is the average cost of capital for the different sources of long-term capital available to a firm weighted according to the proportion each source of finance bears to the total capital in the pool..</em>
To determine the amount by which WACC would be higher, is the difference between WACC with and without debt.
WACC using debt
<em>Step 1</em>
Cost of debt = Before tax cost of debt × (1-T)
= 7%× (1-0.21) = 5.5%
Step 2
<em>Market value of debt and equity</em>
Market of debt = 200 million
Market value of equity = $55 × 10 = $550 million
Total market value = 550 + 200 = $750 million
Step 3
WACC with debt = ((5.5%× 200) + (12%.× 550))/ 750
= 10.3%
WACC without debt (i.e only equity)
WACC without debt = cost of equity = 12%
Difference in WACC between with and without debt
= 12%- 10.3%
= 1.7%
The WACC without debt is higher by 1.7%
Answer:
C. consumers make their purchase decisions based on perceived value.
Explanation:
Consumer perceived value is the benefit of a product that the consumer receives by buying any specific goods or services. Perceived value is the satisfaction level of consumer that customer look in the product, rather than just paying for the product, therefore, the company need to work and develop their brand and value in the market. Cost does not define the value of the product, rather it is a satisfactory level of consumer that defines the value and price of product. Example; Customer does not pay for the software, however, they pay for the solution.
Answer:
The loss of the financial institution is $413,000
Explanation:
Let's say that after 3 years the financial institution will receive:
0.5 * 10% of $10million
= 0.5 * 0.1 * 10000000
= $500,000
Then, they will pay 0.5 * 9% of $10M
= 0.5 * 0.09 * 10000000
= $450,000
Therefore, their immediate loss would be $500000 - $450000
= $50000.
Let's assume that forward rates are realized to value the rest of the swap.
The forward rates = 8% per annum.
Therefore, the remaining cash flows are assumed that floating payment is
0.5*0.08*10000000 =
$400,000
Received net payment would be:
500,000-400,000= $100,000. The total cost of default is therefore the cost of foregoing the following cash flows:
Year 3=$50,000
Year 3.5=$100,000
Year 4 = $100,000
Year 4.5= $100,000
Year 5 = $100,000
Discounting these cash flows to year 3 at 4% per six months, the cost of default would be $413,000
