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igomit [66]
3 years ago
6

When the stock price follows a random walk the price today is said to be equal to the prior period price plus the expected retur

n for the period with any remaining difference to the actual return due to:_________
a. A predictable amount based on the past prices.
b. A component based on new information unrelated to past prices.
c. The security's risk.
d. The risk free rate.
e. None of the above.
Business
1 answer:
Bezzdna [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

e. None of the above.

Explanation:

When the stock price follows a random walk the price today is said to be equal to the prior period price plus the expected return for the period with any remaining difference to the actual return due <u>due to new information related to the stock​"</u>. This is because any new information on stock which is unrelated to stock prices will lead to an increase/decrease in the stock price over a period of time.

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Onslow Co. purchased a used machine for $144,000 cash on January 2. On January 3, Onslow paid $10,000 to wire electricity to the
il63 [147K]

The information is incomplete, but we can assume that the machine was sold at the fifth year for an X amount of money, so we should prepare the journal records. Since we are not given the sales amount, I will just use any number, like $50,000. You can adjust the calculation depending on the exact sales amount.

Explanation:

January 2, Year 1, purchase of machine:

Dr Machinery 144,000

    Cr Cash 144,000

January 3, Year 1, additional expenses needed to put machine into service (electric wiring):

Dr Machinery 10,000

    Cr Cash 10,000

January 3, Year 1, additional expenses needed to put machine into service (installation):

Dr Machinery 2,000

    Cr Cash 2,000

The machine's total cost = $144,000 + $10,000 + $2,000 = $156,000

depreciation expense per year = ($156,000 - salvage value) / 6 years = ($156,000 - $17,280) / 6 = $23,120

Accumulated depreciation during 5 years = $23,120 x 5 = $115,600, carrying value = $156,000 - $115,600 = $40,400

If the machine is sold at $50,000, the journal entries should be:

December 31, year 5, machine is sold:

Dr Cash 50,000

Dr Accumulated depreciation $115,600

    Cr Machinery 156,000

    Cr Gain on disposal 9,600

Gain on disposal = cash received - carrying value = $50,000 - $40,400 = $9,600

4 0
3 years ago
A firm is evaluating a project with an initial investment at time 0 of $640,000. The present value of the levered cash flows is
monitta

Answer:

Using the flow-equity method of valuation the borrowed is $67600,option B.

Explanation:

In order to determine the amount borrowed in executing the project, we make use of the below formula which shows that we are working  backwards.

Amount borrowed=present value of cash inflows-levered cash flows

present value of cash inflows=net present value+initial investment

present value of cash inflows=$157000+$640000

present value of cash inflows=$797000

levered cash flows=$729400

Amount borrowed=$797000-$729400

amount borrowed =$67600

8 0
3 years ago
what is the quistan to nunber four pleas help me i realy need your help if you cant help me thats fine but can you try to help m
DochEvi [55]
Yeah there is not question or upload up there

8 0
3 years ago
Question 2 of 10
Debora [2.8K]
B is going to be your answer
8 0
2 years ago
A company is selling bonds with a face value of $1,000 to raise money for a plant expansion. The bonds pay a coupon rate of 4% p
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

10.26%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Net sales = $760

Face value of bonds = $1,000

Coupon rate = 4% = $1,000 × 4 ÷ 100

= 40

N = Number of Years = 5 annually = semiannually = 5 × 2

= 10 years

We assume, interest rate = 10% = 0.10

P = Coupon Rate ÷ 2 × (PVIFA,Interest Rate ÷ 2%,No. of Years) + Future Value(PVIF,Interest Rate ÷ 2%, No. of Years)

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate) × N]

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10]

=$20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.05)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.05)^10]

=$20 × [1 -1 ÷ 1.6288946] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ 1.6288946]

= 420 × 7.72173 + $1,000 × 0.613913

= $154.4346 + $613.913

= $768.3476

= $768.35

But the given value is 760, so we assume interest rate = 11%

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N]

= $40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷(1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.055)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.055)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ 1.70814446] ÷ 0.055 + $1000 × [1 ÷ 1.70814446]

= $20 × 7.5376255 + $1,000 × 0.5854306

= $150.75 + $585.43

= $736.18

At the Interest rate of 10% the price is more than $760 and at the Interest rate of 1% the price is less than $760. So the required rate lies in between 10% to 11%.

So required rate  

Yield To Maturity = Lower Interest Rate + (Difference Between Interest Rate) × Higher Price - Received Price ÷ Higher Price - Lower Price

= 1 0+( 11 - 10) × $768.35 - $760 ÷ $768.35 - $736.18

= 10 + 1 × $8.35 ÷ $32.17

= 10 + 0.26

= 10.26%

7 0
3 years ago
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