Very likely...... I assume
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
For something to be a function, each input (x value) can only have ONE output (y value)
If an input has multiple outputs, it is not a function.
so the last graph represents a function (parabola going down)
Answer:
I will just give you the way of solving it
Step-by-step explanation:
First you have to change the sgape of the equation and it will become like this :
-6y=-2x+12
And then:
Y=0.33x+2
And then you have to give values to x and find y
For example i will make x zero (0)
It will become
Y=0.33(0)+12
=+12
And the points are (0,+12)
Go on like this and draw the line
Good luck
Sorry for bad english
S (3, 0)
C (5, 1)
W (4, -4)
Explanation
You take the first number and add 6 to it and you get the new number and then you take the second number and subtract 3 from it
S: -3 + 6 = 3
S- 3 - 3 = 0
C: -1 + 6 = 5
C: 4 - 3 = 1
W: -2 + 6 = 4
W: -1 - 3 = -4
