The mandate system had the effect of creating new borders and new countries that exist to this day in the Middle East. It also set up some future issues for Middle East conflict.
Context/detail:
When World War I erupted, the Ottoman Empire sided with Germany as part of the "Central Powers." In the end, the Central Powers lost and the Turkish empire of the Ottomans ceased to exist as an empire. Turkey remained as a country, but it lost control over other territories that it had held before.
The League of Nations created a system for governing former German and Ottoman territories, called "the mandate system." The mandate system authorized a member nation of the League of Nations to govern a former German or Turkish colonial area after the conclusion of World War I. There were mandate territories for former German territories in Africa and Asia, as well for former Ottoman territories in the Middle East.
The former Turkish provinces of Syria, Iraq and Palestine in the Middle East were divided into a French mandate territory and British mandate territory. The British mandate rule over Palestine, in particular, has much to do with the history of the development of the Arab-Israeli conflict.
Answer:
One group Sifton believed to be the ideal immigrant was the American farmer. He thought that they made for excellent settlers as they would already be equipped to deal with North American conditions. Additionally, although Sifton departed from this tradition slightly, British immigrants were still highly valued. Besides that, Sifton saw Central and Eastern European agriculturists as prime candidates for Canadian immigration. He thought that these people, although not traditionally valued, were the ideal settlers for the Prairies especially as they were already familiar with agriculture, rural lifestyle, and harsh climates.
Explanation:
I think the correct answer from the choices listed above is option D. A disadvantage of machine politics would be that citizens <span>who voiced complaints were at risk for their safety. Hope this answers the question. Have a nice day.</span>
One way Hitler violated the Treaty of Versailles in the 1930s was by
rearming the military.
<h3>Treaty of Versailles</h3>
This was signed at the end of World war I in which Germany and other
world power was blamed for the war and was sanctioned accordingly
through the reduction in military forces etc.
This was done to ensure peace but Hitler violated it by rearming the
military forces in Germany. This makes option A the most appropriate
choice.
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