Based on the relationship between the above mentioned measures, the following is true:
- Price and yield to maturity are <u>inversely </u>related.
- When YTM <u>rises</u>, the price of the bond <u>falls</u>.
<h3>What is Yield to Maturity?</h3>
- It is the discount rate on the bond.
- It shows the riskiness of the bond.
When the YTM is high, it means that the bond is more risky which leads to it having a lower price to compensate for the risk. The reverse is true.
Find out more on YTM at brainly.com/question/15172286.
Answer:
$11,000 under applied
Explanation:
To compute the under or over applied overhead, we need to find out the predetermined overhead rate
Predetermined overhead rate = Total estimated manufacturing overhead ÷ Estimated machine hours
= $4,100,000 ÷ 500,000
= $8.2
Then, the overhead applied is;
= Actual machine hours × Predetermined overhead rate
= 495,000 × $8.2
= $4,059,000
Now, the under applied or over applied overhead is
= Actual annual overhead cost - Applied overhead
= $4,070,000 - $4,059,000
= $11,000 under applied
Answer:
The firm's cash flow to creditors during 2018 was –$85,000
Explanation:
The firms cash flow to creditors would be calculating by substracting the interest expense of the firm to the long-term debt taken during the period.
Cash flow to creditors = Interest expense – Net new LTD borrowing
Cash flow to creditors = Interest expense – (LTDend – LTDbeg)
Cash flow to creditors = $255,000 – ($2,210,000 – 1,870,000)
Cash flow to creditors = –$85,000
What John’s company should prepare to demonstrate is the
best practices that they are engaging in managing how it impacts the
environment as this is a way of complying or keep up with the top management request
and when they undergo with the review.
Answer:
The decrease in repo rates is to aim at bringing in growth and improving economic development in the country. Consumers will borrow more from banks thus stabilizing the inflation. A decline in the repo rate can lead to the banks bringing down their lending rate
