Can a trinomial with a leading coefficient not equal to 1 have two identical factors If so , give an example .

A triangle is removed from the rectangle. Find the area of the remaining figure.

Mariulka [41]

Answer

C) 160 in^2

Step by step explanation

First, let's find the area of the rectangle.

Area of a rectangle = length x width

The area of the rectangle = 20 * 10

= 200 in^2

Now let's find the area of the triangle that is removed.

Area of a triangle = 1/2 base * height.

Here base = 10 and height = 8. Plug in these values into the formula, we get

Area of the triangle = 1/2 * 10*8

= 5* 8

The area of the triangle = 40 in^2

The area of the remaining figure = Area of the rectangle - area of the triangle

= 200 - 40

= 160 in^2

The answer is "160 in^2"

Thank you.

5 0

3 years ago

A box contains 24 transistors,4 of which are defective. If 4 are sold at random,find the following probabilities. i. Exactly 2 a

zavuch27 [327]

SOLUTION

This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula

i. Exactly 2 are defective

Using the formula, we have

$\begin{gathered} P_x=^nC_x\left(p^x\right?\left(q^{n-x}\right) \\ Where\text{ } \\ P_x=binomial\text{ probability} \\ x=number\text{ of times for a specific outcome with n trials =2} \\ p=\text{ probability of success = }\frac{4}{24}=\frac{1}{6} \\ q=probability\text{ of failure =1-}\frac{1}{6}=\frac{5}{6} \\ ^nC_x=\text{ number of combinations = }^4C_2 \\ n=\text{ number of trials = 4} \end{gathered}$

Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p

and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q

Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability

$\begin{gathered} P_x=^4C_2\times\lparen\frac{1}{6})^2\times\lparen\frac{5}{6})^{4-2} \\ P_x=6\times\frac{1}{36}\times\frac{25}{36} \\ P_x=\frac{25}{216} \\ =0.1157 \end{gathered}$

Hence the answer is 0.1157

(ii) None is defective becomes

$\begin{gathered} \lparen\frac{5}{6})^4=\frac{625}{1296} \\ =0.4823 \end{gathered}$

hence the answer is 0.4823

(iii) All are defective

$\begin{gathered} \lparen\frac{1}{6})^4=\frac{1}{1296} \\ =0.00077 \end{gathered}$

(iv) At least one is defective

This is 1 - probability that none is defective

$\begin{gathered} 1-\lparen\frac{5}{6})^4 \\ =1-\frac{625}{1296} \\ =\frac{671}{1296} \\ =0.5177 \end{gathered}$

Hence the answer is 0.5177

3 0

1 year ago

What is 3/4 plus 4 1/3

OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to change the denominator into a the least common denominator, 4 and 3 both have 12 in common. 12 is your new denominator but what you to the bottom you must do to the top. So when you multiply 3/4 by 3/3 you will get 9/12.

Then you want to make 4 1/3 into a improper fraction, which would be 13/3 you want to multiply this by 4 and you will get 52/12. You will then add 52/12 to 9/12 and get 61/12 or 5 1/12.

If you need any more help please let me know.

4 0

3 years ago

HELP!!!!!

podryga [215]

Solve for the x-max or h :\
$-b/(2a)=-8/(2*-2)=2=k$
plug it in to equation to get k:/
$y(2)=-2(2)^2+8(2)+3$
-8+16+3=11=k
$y=a(x-2)^2+11
$
solve for a by pluging (0,0)
then a= -11/4
$y=-11/4(x-2)^2+11$

8 0

4 years ago

15 points Please help!<br> What is the product? 4n/4n-4*n-1/n+1

jeka57 [31]

N/n+1
n-1/n-1=1
result is n/n+1

5 0

3 years ago