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FromTheMoon [43]
4 years ago
13

You are a consultant to a large manufacturing corporation considering a project with the following net after-tax cash flows (in

millions of dollars): Years from Now After-Tax CF 0 –30 1–9 15 10 30 The project's beta is 1.9. Assuming rf = 4% and E(rM) = 14% a. What is the net
Business
1 answer:
irakobra [83]4 years ago
4 0

What is the net present value of the project? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Answer:

Present Value = $22.47 million

Explanation:

Given

After-tax cash flows (in millions of dollars):

Years from Now || After-Tax CF

0 || 30

1–9 || 15

10 || 30

Project Beta = β = 1.9

Risk free rate = rf = 4%

Market Return = E(rM) = 14%

First, we calculate the expected return

Expected return is calculated as

Expected Return = Risk free rate + Project Beta * (market return - risk free rate)

Expected Return = rf + β (E(rM) - rf)

Expected return = 4% + 1.9 * (14% - 4%)

Expected Return = 4% + 1.9(10%)

Expected Return = 0.04 + 1.9(0.1)

Expected Return = 0.04 + 0.19

Expected Return = 0.23

Expected Return = 23%

I = 23%

The Present Value of Annuity is calculated as

PV = - Payment for year 0 + Payment for year 1 - 9 + Payment for year 10

For Year 0, Payment Value = 29

For Year 1 - 9;

PV = Payment per period + [ 1 - (1+i)^-n ]/i

Where n = 9 and I = 24%

Payment per period = 15

PV = 15 + [ 1 - (1 + 23%)^-9]/23%

PV = 18.67

For Year 10

PV = Payment per period + [ 1 - (1+i)^-n ]/i

Where n = 10 and I = 24%

Payment per period = 15

PV = 30 + [ 1 - (1 + 23%)^-10]/23%

PV = 33.80

PV = - Payment for year 0 + Payment for year 1 - 9 + Payment for year 10

Becomes

PV = -30 + 18.67 + 33.80

PV = 22.47

Present Value = $22.47 million

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orward rates. Your company has posted you on a 27​-month overseas assignment in​ Budapest, Hungary. You will be living on the Bu
Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

$1 = 122.84  Hungarian Forint

Explanation:

<em>The purchasing power parity theory states the future spot rate and and he current spot exchange rate between two currencies can be linked to the relative inflation rate between the two currencies. This also known as the law of one price. </em>

The model is given as follows:

S = So× (1+Fc)/(1+Fh)

Fc - inflation rate in Hungary - 6.9%

Fh- Inflation rate in the US- 2.8%

S- Future spot rate- ?

So- Current spot rate-188.13

Expected exchange rate one year from now  

118.13× (1.069)/(1.028)

=122.8414

= 122.84  Hungarian Forint

$1 = 122.84  Hungarian Forint

6 0
3 years ago
In your own words.<br><br> Why is it important to the business to motivate employees?..
Alexeev081 [22]

This is mainly opinionated, and since I'm young I may be wrong.

I say it's good to motivate them because then they will do a better job at their task and will make you seem like a good boss/person, especially if it's a decent pay that will keep them being able to live. With the motivation, they might even remember more things (Such as: If you work at a gas station, you remember to upsell people when a deal is going on, whereas unmotivated people forget or just don't want to do it and be lazy). It's the same effect of giving a kid a piece of candy for being good, doing chores, or getting a harder question right.

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4 years ago
Safety stock can be computed when using the fixed-order quantity inventory model by multiplying a "z" value representing the num
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

The Z value determinates the level of service at a normalize distribution of (0;1) We then convert this value to the deviation of our distribution by multiplying each other.

The Z value represent the the value at which a 99% or 95% or whatever percent of change of safety is achieve. We convert by our deviation to adapt the normalize distribution of (1;0) to our values.

There is always a chance for stock-out as we work with probabilities and at more higher safety level we require more units to make up for the change of a single customer from nowhere purchase an unexpected amount. As this person can appear anytime and purchase any amount there is always a level of uncertain (5% or  1% or less)

4 0
3 years ago
What is the technique used to help groups generate multiple ideas and alternatives for solving problems
bekas [8.4K]

Brainstorming is the technique used to help groups generate multiple ideas and alternatives for solving problems.

This is usually through a group discussion where the members are asked to throughout a list of ideas and solutions and the group discusses them to find a good alternative.

4 0
3 years ago
Abby consumes only apples. In year1, red apples cost $1 each, green apples cost $2 each, and Abby buys 10 red apples. In year 2,
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

Part A)  

Consumer price index is an amount of the average variation over time in the amounts paid by customers for a market basket of customer goods and services.

CPI= (Updated Cost/Base Period Cost) x 100

For multiple products, we have to ruminate the weights or proportion of expenditure of an item

CPI2= (P2Red xQ1Red) + (P2grn x Q1grn) / (P1Red xQ1Red) + (P1grn x Q1grn)

CPI2= (2 x 10) + (1x0)/ (1x10) + (2x0)

CPI2= 2

Based on the CPI in year 2, prices have doubled.

Part B)

Nominal expenditure is the total worth of outcome produced or expended in each year.

In year 1 and year 2, Abby buys

Year 1= $1 x 10= $10

Year 2= $1 x 10= $10

So, nominal expenditure remains constant at $10.

Part C)

Real expenditure is the quantity consumed or the basket in the current year calculated at the base year price.

Base year prices: Red $1& Green $2

Real expenditure in year 1  = (P1rQ1r) + (P1gQ1g)

                                               =$1x10 + X2x0

                                               = $10

Real expenditure in year 2  = (P1rQ2r) + (P1gQ2g)

                                       = (1x 0) + (2 x 10)

                                       = $20

So, real expenditure has increased from $10 to $20

Part D).

Implicit value deflator in year 1, it is the base year so it will be continuously 1 as the actual and nominal amounts are equal.

Implicit price deflator in year  = nominal expenditure/real expenditure

Implicit price deflator in year 1 = 10/10

                                                = 1

Implicit price deflator in year2  = 10/20

                                                = 0.5

Thus, the implicit value deflator proposes that prices have dropped by half. The cause for this is that the deflator evaluations how much Abby standards her appeals using prices dominant in year 1.

We can perceive from this perception that the green apples are appreciated more .And when Abby consumes more green apples in year 2, it appears that her consumption has augmented as the price deflator standards green apples more than the red apples.

Part E)

Abby considers that red apples and green apples as perfect alternatives, then the cost of living in this budget has not changed in both year it costs $10 to eat 10 apples.

Permitting to the CPl, however, the cost of living has gathered. This is because it only takes into justification the detail that the red apple price has gathered; the CPl overlooks the fall in the price of green apples as they were not in the consumption package in year 1.

In difference to the CPI, the implicit value deflator approximations the cost of living has shared.

CPI is calculated based on the Laspreyers Index method, where the amount in the numerator is the amount in the base year. Where as in the Passche price index, the numerator is the Recent price calculated for current capacity of consumption.

The Laspeyres index inclines to exaggerate rise (in a cost of living framework), while the Paasche index tends to understate it, because the indices do not account for the fact that consumers typically react to value variations by changing the amounts that they buy. For example, if prices go up for good X then, at ceteris paribus, amounts of that good should go downcast.

7 0
3 years ago
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