1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
cupoosta [38]
2 years ago
12

In the Kennedy assassination, how did one shot pass through two people without travelling in a straight line, while another shot

from the rear caused Kennedy’s head to move backwards, rather than forwards?
History
1 answer:
antiseptic1488 [7]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

it would be theoretical impossible

Explanation:

a bullet is incapable of moving in a angle like that without hiting something to cause it to ricochet of of something but it wasnt a sharp torn it was like it was being guided which is impossible unless there was another shooter.

You might be interested in
At the first appellate court hearing of the automotive accident case of Wag v. Dollup, the court of first instance's verdict was
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

take the case to the United States Supreme Court

Explanation:

From the scenario given, it can be inferred that the case has been decided at the court of the first instance, which is the lower court.

Also, the court has been decided at the first appellate court, which is the court of appeals. Then If Wag's lawyer wants to appeal this decision, (, the decision of the court of appeal) he will " take the case to the United States Supreme Court."

This is because it is the Supreme Court that has jurisdiction over the appeal courts.

Note: since it is not specified that the case is exclusive of the state laws, then it is assumed that the automobile accident, in this case, involved federal laws.

Hence, the next step is to "take the case to the United States Supreme Court"

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The definition of the term map is __________.
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

Plan

Hope this is correct

HAVE A GOOD DAY!

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
4.
serious [3.7K]
I think it is b because
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Before any archaeological fieldwork begins, archaeologists try to make their objectives explicit in the form of a/an
Andrew [12]

Answer:

research design

Explanation: Hope this Helps!

8 0
2 years ago
Did the Renaissance improve the lives of women or did it entrench women further into
natka813 [3]

Answer:

The question of “did women have a renaissance” is not something that has not been asked before. In 1977 Joan Kelly wrote an essay addressing this question specifically. In the Renaissance, when the political systems changed from the Medieval feudal systems, women of every social class saw a change in their social and political options that men did not. Celibacy became the female norm and "the relations of the sexes were restructured to one of female dependency and male domination" (Kelly 20). Women lived the life of the underlying sex. Men ruled over everything, even through half a century of Queens.

“When England was ruled for half a century by Queens but women had almost no legal power; When marriage, a women’s main vocation, cost them their personal property rights; when the ideal women was rarely seen and never heard in public; when the clothes a women wore were legally dictated by her social class; when almost all school teachers were men; when medicine was prepared and purified at home; when corsets were

constructed of wood and cosmetics made of bacon and eggs; when only half of all babies survived to adulthood?" (Hull 15).

The above passage says a lot about women in the Renaissance. The role of women was a very scarce role. Women were supposed to be seen and not heard. Rarely seen at that. Women were to be prim and proper, the ideal women. Females were able to speak their minds but their thoughts and ideas were shaped by men. Mostly everything women did had input given by men. Women were controlled by her parents from the day she is born until the day she is married, then she would be handed directly to her husband so he could take over that role. In the time of the renaissance women were considered to legally belong to their husbands. Women were supposed to be typical ‘housewives.'

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • Which factor contributed to colonel James Frannins decision to surrender to General Jose de Urrea? A.Urreas army received reinfo
    9·1 answer
  • At the beginning of the American Revolution, General Washington would have been likely to support
    8·2 answers
  • Which type of climate is experienced in the northern countries of South America
    12·1 answer
  • In what year was the last remaining professional baseball team integrated?
    11·2 answers
  • Why do you think Marqués de Rubí recommended that he capital of the Spanish province of Texas be moved from Los Adaes to San Ant
    5·2 answers
  • What were the main ideas of Woodrow Wilson’s Fourteen Points?​
    14·2 answers
  • What was the Cold War...<br><br><br> Please short answer thank you
    11·2 answers
  • After World War II, many Japanese territories were increasingly difficult for Japan to control. placed under the control of othe
    10·2 answers
  • You can use your text book to answer to complete this activity. Between the administrations of George Washington and James Madis
    8·1 answer
  • How did the Treaty of Versaille lead to World War II
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!