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3 years ago

If the dimensions of the following cylinder are doubled, what factor will the surface area change by?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Vedmedyk [2.9K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

probably 2 or 4

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

A professional hockey goal is 6 feet

Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Just multiply

6×4=24 :)

3 0

3 years ago

What would be the division problem for this

daser333 [38]

3 1/2 divided by 5. this would give you .7 pounds of candy per person

7 0

3 years ago

Prove that 8^6 + 4^11 is divisible by 17

Nimfa-mama [501]

8^6 + 4^11 = 262144 + 4194304 = 4456448
4456448/17 = 262144 is the answer

8 0

3 years ago

john wanted to run a 26k marathon. He only completed 0.75 of it before having to stop . How many kilometers did he run

kvasek [131]

Answer:

19.5 kilometers

Step-by-step explanation:

to find how much he ran we can multiply the two numbers

26 * 0.75 is 19.5

he only ran 19.5 kilometers

6 0

3 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

5 0

3 years ago