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3 years ago

Alex went out to dinner with her family. The

2 answers:

6 0

$44.16

To do this you will take 38.40 and multiply it by .15 and get 5.76.
Add 5.76 to 38.40 and you get your answer, $44.16

Crank3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

$44.16

Step-by-step explanation:

total amount to pay = $38.40 + (0.15)($38.40)

= $38.40 + 5.76

= $44.16

You can also just put 38.40 * 1.15 and you will get the same answer

You might be interested in

What is the solution to this inequality: -4(3x-5)<2(3x+4)

Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

x > 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

-4(3x - 5) < 2(3x + 4)

Divide both sides by 2.

-2(3x - 5) < 3x + 4

Distribute on the left side.

-6x + 10 < 3x + 4

Subtract 3x from both sides.

-9x + 10 < 4

Subtract 10 from both sides.

-9x < - 6

Divide both sides by -9. Remember that when you divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, the inequality sign changes direction.

x > (-6)/(-9)

x > 6/9

x > 2/3

7 0

3 years ago

Which list includes the lower extreme, the lower quartile, the median, the upper quartile, and the upper extreme for the data se

PtichkaEL [24]

Lower extreme- 8
Lower quartile- 20
Median- 30
Upper quartile- 35
Upper extreme- 42

Hope this helps!

7 0

2 years ago

Three cards are drawn from a standard deck of 52 cards without replacement. Find the probability that the first card is an ace,

MrRissso [65]

Answer:

$4.82\cdot 10^{-4}$

Step-by-step explanation:

In a deck of cart, we have:

a = 4 (aces)

t = 4 (three)

j = 4 (jacks)

And the total number of cards in the deck is

n = 52

So, the probability of drawing an ace as first cart is:

$p(a)=\frac{a}{n}=\frac{4}{52}=\frac{1}{13}=0.0769$

At the second drawing, the ace is not replaced within the deck. So the number of cards left in the deck is

$n-1=51$

Therefore, the probability of drawing a three at the 2nd draw is

$p(t)=\frac{t}{n-1}=\frac{4}{51}=0.0784$

Then, at the third draw, the previous 2 cards are not replaced, so there are now

$n-2=50$

cards in the deck. So, the probability of drawing a jack is

$p(j)=\frac{j}{n-2}=\frac{4}{50}=0.08$

Therefore, the total probability of drawing an ace, a three and then a jack is:

$p(atj)=p(a)\cdot p(j) \cdot p(t)=0.0769\cdot 0.0784 \cdot 0.08 =4.82\cdot 10^{-4}$

4 0

3 years ago

What number is 15% of 215

PSYCHO15rus [73]

15/100 × 215 = 3225/100
= 32.25

i am a mathematics teacher. if anything to ask please pm me

3 0

3 years ago

Does this relation represent a function why or why not?

Serga [27]

Answer:

This is a function and it's because there's only one input for every output.

Step-by-step explanation:

Note: Although 5 and 1 both point to the same number this doesn't take away the validity of the function. :)

5 0

2 years ago