Q 12. c) independent local governments
The Industrial Revolution began in England because of several reasons. England was advanced technologically, and it had lot of innovators. Also, it had lot of colonies, lot of production of numerous products, and very large market, so it needed something that will speed up and increase the production. The labor force was also in abundance, so the terrain was set for industrialization, and once the steam engine was invented, it all started and rapidly developed.
Q 14. c) Simon Bolivar
Simon Bolivar was not a fighter for abolishing of the slavery. He was a fighter for freedom of thee Spanish colonies. Bolivar was active in Latin America, in what are now the countries of Bolivia, Venezuela, Colombia, Peru, Ecuador, and Panama. Bolivar was one of the most prominent leaders of the fight for freedom, and he was very successful, with the Spanish troops being pushed out of this region. He had a vision of creating a united, large, strong country in all of the territories that were freed. That didn't came to be though, as such a united nation never formed, but instead it was several separate independent nations.
Q 15. budding Romantic movement
The revolutions of 1830 and 1848 in Europe were caused by several different things. The increasing discontent of the aristocracy was one of those reasons, as the majority of the population was struggling, while few people were controlling the majority of the wealth, and on top of that were treating very badly toward the people. The nationalism also was a big reason, as the people wanted to unit and create strong nations, so that led to revolutions against the ones that were trying to stop this. The liberal spirit was also growing gradually, as the people wanted to have more rights and to enjoy the same things as the wealthier people, and to be treated equally, leading to revolt. The Romantic movement though had nothing to do with the revolutions, as it didn't caused any uprising of this type.
No you can not because it does not have to be a illegal drug for the police to charge you with DUI because you are not supposed to drive if you are on pain killers and if you do they can charge you with DUI for driving under the influence of a prescription drug
