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Korolek [52]
3 years ago
12

Suppose that market demand is Q = 660 – 12P and marginal cost is MC = 5. The consumer surplus in a perfectly competitive market

is $___________, while the consumer surplus in a monopoly market is $ __________.
a. 5,000; 3,750

b. 15,000; 7,500

c. 15,000; 3,750

d. 0; 7,500
Business
1 answer:
Ad libitum [116K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 15000; 3750

Explanation:

From the question,

Q = 660 – 12P

MC = 5

The consumer surplus in a perfectly competitive market will be:

P = MC

Therefore, P = 5

Q = 660 - 12P = 660 - 12(5) = 660 - 60 = 600

Consumer surplus = 1/2 × (55 - 5) (600)

= 1/2 × 50 × 600

= 15,000

For monopoly, MR = MC

Total Revenue = P × Q

Since Q= 660 - 12P

P = (660 - Q)/12

TR = P × Q

= (660 - Q)/12 × Q

= (660Q- Q²)/12 × Q

MR = (660 - 2Q)/12

MR = MC

(660 - 2Q)/12 = 5

(660 - 2Q) = 5 × 12

660 - 2Q = 60

2Q = 660 - 60

2Q = 600

Q = 600/2

Q= 300

Since P =(660 - Q)/12

= (660 - 300)/12

= 360/12

= 30

Consumer surplus = 1/2 × (55 - 30) (30)

= 1/2 × 25 × 300

= 3750

Therefore, the answer is 15000; 3750

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djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

$230,000

Revised Question:

The demand for one of X Company's products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment that originally cost $1,300,000 and has a carrying value of $720,000. As of the current date, December 31, 2012, it is expected that only an additional 400,000 units are likely to be sold over the remaining life of the equipment. Each unit sells for $3 and has a manufacturing cost of $1.50. Relevant information as of December 31, 2018:

The undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment is expected to be $600,000.

The present value of the future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment, calculated at the company's cost of capital, is $475,000.

The equipment has a fair value of $490,000 on the date of evaluation.

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Explanation:

IAS 36 Impairment of Assets states that company's or entity's assets can not be carried at more than their Recoverable Amount

<em>Recoverable Amount</em> equals to higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use

<em>Value in Use</em> is net present value (NPV) of future cashflows generated by an asset.

Lets calculate the Recoverable amount of the equipment of Company X:

Fair Value less Cost of disposal = $490,000 - 0 = $490,000

Value in Use = discounted future cashflows from equipment =  $475,000

<em>So Recoverable Amount is higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use i.e $490,000</em>

<h3>Impairment Loss = Carrying Value - Recoverable Amount </h3><h3>                              = $720,000 - $490,000</h3><h3>                              = $230,000</h3>
5 0
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Giving the following information:

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Because it is a special offer and there is unused capacity, we will not take into account the fixed costs.

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Variable cost= 15,000*0.5= (7,500)

Effect on income= 7,500 increase

5 0
3 years ago
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