The answer:
First: sec(-pi) is sec(pi)
And sec(pi) is -1
Answer:
97%
Step-by-step explanation:
89%+98%+96%+?=95×4
283+?=380
?=380-283
?=97%
Answer: C
Step-by-step explanation: it is c trust me
Answer:
It has no slope because x 2 minus x 1 in the formula m = StartFraction y 2 minus y 1 Over x 2 minus x 1 EndFraction is zero, and the denominator of a fraction cannot be zero.
Step-by-step explanation:
Points:
Slope-intercept form:
slope is:
- m= (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)= (20-10)/(7-7)= 10/0,
denominator of the fraction is zero, we can't divide by zero, so this line has no slope
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It has a slope of zero because x 2 minus x 1 in the formula m = StartFraction y 2 minus y 1 Over x 2 minus x 1 EndFraction is zero, and the numerator of a fraction cannot be zero.
- no, numerator is not zero
It has a slope of zero because x 2 minus x 1 in the formula m = StartFraction y 2 minus y 1 Over x 2 minus x 1 EndFraction is zero, and the denominator of a fraction cannot be zero.
It has no slope because x 2 minus x 1 in the formula m = StartFraction y 2 minus y 1 Over x 2 minus x 1 EndFraction is zero, and the numerator of a fraction cannot be zero.
- no, numerator is not zero
It has no slope because x 2 minus x 1 in the formula m = StartFraction y 2 minus y 1 Over x 2 minus x 1 EndFraction is zero, and the denominator of a fraction cannot be zero.
Let's say this number is a:
a*(a-9) = 90
a^2-9a-90 = 0
(a-15)(a+6) = 0
a = 15 or a = -6
Therefor a. would be the correct answer :)
