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nordsb [41]
4 years ago
15

On December 31, 2017, Ling Co. estimated that 2% of its net sales of $443,800 will become uncollectible. The company recorded th

is amount as an addition to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts. On May 11, 2018, Ling Co. determined that the Jeff Shoemaker account was uncollectible and written off $2,219. On June 12, 2018, Shoemaker paid the amount previously written off. Prepare the journal entries on December 31, 2017, May 11, 2018, and June 12, 2018.
Business
1 answer:
WINSTONCH [101]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1. Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $8,876

  To Allowance for doubtful debts   $8,876

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:

= Credit sales × estimated percentage given

= $443,800 × 2%

= $8,876

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr $2,219

              To Account receivable A/c $2,219

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr $2,219

              To Account receivable A/c $2,219

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

4. Cash A/c Dr $2,219

              To Account receivable A/c $2,219

(Being the written off amount is collected)

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Your uncle has $90,000 that he wishes to invest now to use the accumulation for purchasing a retirement annuity in five years. A
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

The question is incomplete, it is missing the last part:

<em>Each dollar invested in D at the beginning of year 5 returns $1.12 at the end of year 5. </em>

<em> Your uncle is obligated to make a balloon payment on an existing loan, in the amount of $24,000, at the end of year 3. He wants to cover that payment out of these funds as well.</em>

First of all, you must invest enough money in B in order to pay your debt.

present value = future value / expected return

present value = $24,000 / $1.36 = $17,647.06

you have $90,000 - $17,647.06 = $72,352.94 to invest in A.

at the end of year 2, you will have:

future value = present value x expected return = $72,352.94 x $1.20 = $86,823.53

then you should invest that money ($86,823.53) in invested D and at the end of year 4 you will have:

future value = $86,823.53 x $1.66 = $144,127.06

finally, you should invest $144,127.06 in investment E and at the end of ear 5 you will have:

future value = $144,127.06 x $1.12 = $161,422.31

5 0
4 years ago
What is the key to achieving long-term, sustainable recovery in sales in the renewal phase?
Vilka [71]

The renewal phase is focused on increasing sales and profits due to growth in the area.  The key to achieving long-term stability in this stage is to make sure those moving into the area as it's growing, know your product is available. Once they are aware of the product, they are more likely to try it and trust it.

3 0
3 years ago
To keep the accounting equation in balance, an increase in an asset may be coupled with a(n) A : decrease in a liability. B : de
raketka [301]

Answer:

D. Decrease in another asset.

Explanation:

In balance sheet

Shareholder's equity = Assets - Liabilities

If there's an increase in a particular asset, to keep the equation in balance, there need to be a proportionate decrease in another asset. An increase in an asset without a decrease in another results in an unbalanced equation.

Decreasing the liabilities or shareholder's equity wouldn't be able to balance an equation where an asset was increased. Also, increasing another asset would only create a larger gap instead of balancing the equation.

3 0
3 years ago
L. Bowers and V. Lipscomb are partners in Elegant Event Consultants. Bowers and Lipscomb share income equally. M. Ortiz will be
Mama L [17]

Answer: See attachment and explanation

Explanation:

1. Ortiz purchased a 20% interest for $20,000.

Total capital after the admission of the partner will be:

= ($96000 - $4000) + ($40000 - $4000) + $20000

= $92000 + $36000 + $20000

= $148000

The share of new partner in the capital structure will be:

= Total capital × Interest of new partner

= $148000 × 20%

= $29600

There'll be a deficiency in the profit which the existing partner contributes to and this will be:

= $29600 - $20000

= $9600

Then each partner shares =$9600/2 = $4800

2. Ortiz purchased a 30% interest for $60,000.

Total capital after the admission of the partner will be:

= ($96000 - $4000) + ($40000 - $4000) + $60000

= $92000 + $36000 + $60000

= $188000

The share of new partner in the capital structure will be:

= Total capital × Interest of new partner

= $188000 × 30%

= $56400

Since the share is less than the amount of $60000 bought in, the existing partner will be compensated in the amount of ($60000 - $56400) = $3600. Therefore each partner gets $3600/2 = $1800

Check attachment for the journal entries.

5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2021, Taco King leased retail space from Fogelman Properties. The 10-year finance lease requires quarterly variabl
Natalija [7]

Answer:

<u>Jan 1st, 2021 entry:</u>

Equipment    746,168 debit

    Lease Liability    723,668 credit

    Cash                     22,500 credit

<u>April 1st, 2021 entry:</u>

Interest expense    7,537 debit

Lease Liability       15,263 debit

         Cash              22,800 credit

Explanation:

We will assume a 750,000 sales revenue per quarter. As this was their historical and expected value:

750,000 x 3% = 22,500 per quarter

Now, we solve for the present value of the lease payment:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate}(1+r) = PV\\

C 22,500

time 40 (10 years x 4 quarter per year)

rate 0.01 (4% annual / 4 quarters)

22500 \times \frac{1-(1+0.01)^{-40} }{0.01}(1+0.01) = PV\\

PV $746,168.2419

we subtract the first payment of 22,500

lease liability reocrded in the enrty: 723.668

As lease sales were 760,000

lease payment: 760,000 x 3% = 22,800

less expected of 22,500 = 300 additional interest expense

interest expense: 723,668 x 0.01 = 7,237 + 300 = 7,537

amortization on lease liability: 22,800 -7,537 = 15,263

6 0
4 years ago
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